B. Yadagiri IRS: CSP-2015:India Polity Test-2 Dt.31.10.2014

CSP-2015:India Polity Test-2 Dt.31.10.2014

Instructions

1. Attempt all 100 questions.

2. All questions carry equal marks

3. Maximum marks:200

4. Time allowed: As per UPSC allows

5. Negative marking as per UPSC rules

*****

1. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct? (CSP 2011)

A. It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development.

B. It facilities the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings.

C. It ensures transparency in financial administration

D. None of the above.

2. Which of the following statements are true with regard to the participants in the election of the President of India?

1) The members of both houses of Parliament and State Assemblies and UTs

2) Elected members of State Assemblies and 2 UTs

3) Members of the State Councils

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1 and 3

3. Which of the following are correct with regard to ordinance making power of the President?

1. It is a legislation made when both or either of the houses of Parliament are not in session

2. If Parliament takes no action on the ordinance, it ceases to operate on the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of the Parliament

3. Ordinance can be issued for amending the Constitution

4. It is a parallel power of legislation

A) 1,2 & 3 B) 1,2 & 4 C) 1& 2 D) 1& 3

4. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Veto power of the President )		List II (Utility)
A	Absolute Veto	1	State bills reserved by the Governor to the President
B	Pocket Veto	2	Private member’s bills
C	Suspensive Veto	3	Can overcome by re-passing the bill
D	Non-availability of Veto	4	Constitution Amendment Bills

Codes:

A B C D

A. 4 3 2 1

B. 4 3 1 2

C. 2 1 3 4

D. 2 1 4 3

5. According to the constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following: [CSP 2012]

1) The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission.

2) The Report of the Public Accounts Committee

3) The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General

4) The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

6. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Action )		List II (Meaning)
A	Commutation	1	Stay of execution of a sentence for a temporary period
B	Reprieve	2	Awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded
C	Remission	3	Substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form
D	Respite	4	Reducing the period of sentence without changing its character
E	Pardon	5	Absolves convict from all sentences, punishments etc

Codes:

A B C D E

A. 3 4 2 1 5

B. 4 2 1 3 5

C. 3 1 4 2 5

D. 4 3 2 1 5

7. Which of the following are not true with regard to Vice-President of India?

A. Vice-President is ex-officio chairperson of Rajya Sabha

B. This post is modeled on the lines of American Vice-President

C. The resolution for removing the Vice-President has to be moved only in R.Sabha

D. He draws emoluments as Vice-President of India as fixed by the Parliament

8. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament? [CSP 2010]

A. Department of Revenue

B. Department of Economic Affairs

C. Department of Financial Services

D. Department of Expenditure

9. Which of the following constitutional position do not hold post during the pleasure of the President?

1) Judges of SC & High Courts

2) Speaker of Lok-Sabha

3) Election Commissioners

4) Prime Minister

5) Attorney General of India

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1, 2 & 3 B) 2, 3 and 4 C) 1, 3 and 4 D) All of them

10. Which one of the following statements is correct with regards to powers of PM of India in choosing his “Council of Ministers”?

A. PM is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House of Parliament

B. He can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counseling by the President of India in this regard

C. He has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet

D. He has only limited powers in the choice his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary powers vested with the President of India.

11. Consider the following statements

1. The President of India has to submit his resignation to CJI of Supreme Court.

2. As per Constitution, no person can officiate as President for more than two terms.

3. In the case of both President and Vice-President are vacant, CJI of Supreme Court and in the case of absence of all of them, the senior most judge of Supreme Court act as President.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 only D. 3 only

12. Which of the statements are true with regard to appointment and duties of P.M. in India?

A. The constitution has prescribed a fixed method of appointment of P.M.

B. P.M. has no right ask President to dissolved Lok Sabha.

C. The constitution is silent on the issue whether P.M. shall come from Lok Sabha (or)

Rajya Sabha.

D. He is not duty bound to communicate the President on the issues of cabinet decisions on the administration of the country and legislation proposed to be made.

13. Which of the following happens when incumbent P.M. dies?

A. Parliament get dissolved

B. The “Council of Ministers”, select one among them as P.M.

C. Fresh Elections are to be conducted.

D. The “Council of Ministers” gets cancelled.

14. Match list I & List II & select the answer from the codes given below:

	List-I [Govt. Functionary]		List-II [Performance of Duty]
A	P.M. & his Cabinet	1	Making a bill on the creation of new states
B	Cabinet Secretariat	2	Preparation of the Budget
C	Finance Ministry	3	Prepares agenda for the Cabinet meetings
D	Ministry of Home Affairs	4	Prepare speech of the President

Codes:

A B C D

A 1 2 3 4

B 4 3 2 1

C 4 3 1 2

D 3 4 2 1

15. Who is heading the 14^th Finance Commission for suggesting the sharing of revenues by the Centre and states during the period 2015-16 to 2020-21.

A) Y.V. Reddy B) Dr. C. Rangarajan C) Dr. Raguram Rajan D) Justice Verma

16. Which of the following statements are true with regard to election and impeachment of President of India?

A. The Electoral College does not include any members from Union Territories.

B. The nominated members of Parliament participate in the impeachment of President.

C. Members of the State assemblies have no role to play in Presidential impeachment.

D. Both B & C are correct.

17. Consider the following statements:

1. The final authority for the disputes arising out of election of President and Vice-

President is the Election Commission.

2. If the election of the President / Vice President is declared void by Election

Commission, the acts done by President / Vice President before the date of such

decision would be invalidated automatically.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

18. Consider the following statements

(1) Vice-President is the Ex-officio-Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

(2) The V.P. draws salary & emoluments as Chairman of R.S., not as the Vice-President

(3) He is entitled for salary & other emoluments as President when he officiates as President

due to vacancy / other reasons.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 & 3 D. 2 and 3

19. Which of the following is not a method of invalidation of an “Ordinance”?

A. Parliament’s disapproval within 6 weeks from the Commencement of Parliament’s

Session

B. No action by the Parliament after Commencement of Parliament’s Session.

C. Presidential withdrawal of ordinance

D. Regularizing the ordinance by the Parliament

20. Match List – I & List – II & select the correct answer from the codes given below:

	List – I (Funds)		List – II (Sources / meaning)
A	Consolidated Fund of India	1	Contributions from Govt. Officers; Savings, Provident Funds etc
B	Contingent Fund of India	2	Transfers from consolidated Fund of India
C	Public Accounts of India	3	Revenue & Capital receipts of India
D	Public Provident Fund	4	Scheme for promoting savings of general public

Codes:

A B C D

A 3 2 1 4

B 3 2 4 1

C 4 1 2 3

D 4 1 3 2

21. Consider the following statements

1. The word “Cabinet” has been introduced in the constitution by 44^th Constitutional

Amendment Act in section 352

2. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers

shall not exceed 15% of the total Strength Lok Sabha

3. A Minister neither has a right to speak and take part in the proceedings, nor has right

to vote in the House to which he is not a member.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 2 C. All of the above D. None of the above

22. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Type of Minster/Officer)		List II (Right to attend cabinet meetings )
A	Cabinet Minister	1	Has no right to attend cabinet meetings
B	Minister of State	2	Attends cabinet meetings on his own right.
C	Deputy Minister	3	Attend cabinet meetings if invited
D	Attorney General of India	4	Generally doesn’t attend cabinet meetings

Codes:

A B C D

A. 3 1 4 2

B. 2 3 4 1

C. 2 3 1 4

D. 2 4 3 1

23. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Provisions)		List II (Contained in)
A	Cabinet form of Govt.	1	Separation of powers
B	Presidential Government	2	Collective responsibility
C	Federal Government	3	Concentration of powers
D	Unitary Government	4	Division of powers
		5	Administrative law.

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 5 2

(b) 2 1 4 3

(d) 2 4 5 1

24. Consider the following statements with regard to Attorney General of India.

1. He is appointed by the President and hold office during his/her pleasure

2. He has right to speak and participate in the proceedings of both houses of Parliament or

its Committees (where is named) thereof.

3. He is the highest law officer in the country

4. He is a Government servant and therefore cannot have his private legal practice

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1,2 & 3 B) 1,3 & 4 C) 2,3 & 4 D) All of the above

25. Consider the following Statements:

1) All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President.

2) The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation.

3) The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.

4) The President has the right to address and send messages to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. Only 1 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

26. Which one of the following issues is not compulsory/mandatory as per the 73^rd Amendment, 1992 to the constitution?

A. Reservation of seats to SCs and STs in Panchayats in proportion to their population

B. Reservation of seats in panchayats to Women up to 33%.

C. Creation of State Election Commission to conduct elections

D. Providing reservations to Other Backward Classes [OBCs]

27. Consider the following statements

1. The issue of Organizing Village Panchayats is in the con-current list

2. The 73^rd and 74^th Amendment Acts, 1992 is a Central law on state subject.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. Only 1 B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

28. Gramsabha is made up of

A. All the population living in a panchayat area

B. All people who have crossed 18 years of age in a Panchayat area

C. All the people who have crossed 21 years of age in a Panchayat area

D. It is a body with all registered voters in a territorial jurisdiction of panchayat area

29. Consider the following statements

1. Balwant Roy committee which was constituted during 1957 has recommended for 3-tier

Panchayat Raj system at Village, Block and District levels.

2. Ashok Mehta committee, constituted in 1977 has recommended for 2-tier PRI bodies at

Block and District levels and involvement of political parties directly with their symbols in

the PR elections.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. Only 1 B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

30. Which of the following is/are the duty/duties of Grama Sabha?

A. Making a report on the Gram Panchayat’s audit and accounts and approval of annual

budget

B. Levy and review of panchayat taxes assigned to them by the State Legislature

C. Election of Gram Panchayat members

D. All of the above.

31. Which of the following is the highest Local Self Governments in Urban areas under the 74^th constitutional Amendment Act, 1992?

A. Municipal council B. Nagar Panchayat C. Municipal Corporation D. Cantonment

32. Consider the following taxes or duties

1. Property tax 2. Sales tax 3. Octroi 4. Animal tax

Which of the above taxes are levied by the Municipal Corporations?

A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. All of them

33. Which of the following are the duties of Gram Panchayat or the first tier of the Panchayat Raj Institutions [PRI]?

A. Health and sanitation

B. Street Lights and drinking water facilities

C. Village roads

D. All of the above

34. What is the role/power of Gram Sabha in the areas covered under the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, [PESA Act, 1996]?

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.

2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce [MFP].

3. Recommendation of Gram sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining

Lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

35. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendations to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?

A. District Planning Committees B. State Finance Commission

C. Finance Ministry of that State D. Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State

36. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within
A. 1 month B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 1 year
37. Consider the following statements:
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by

the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India Contains provisions for municipalities and the Article

243 Q envisage two types of municipalities – a Municipal Council and a Municipal

    Corporation for every State only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    A. 1 only           B. 2 only                         C. Both 1 and 2             D. Neither 1 nor 2
38. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that
    A. He obtains permission from the Principal of his college

B. He is a member of a Political party

C. His name figures in the voters’ list

D. He files a declaration owing allegiance of the Constitution of India
39. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Local Bodies)		List II (States associated)
A	Zilla Parishads at divisional level	1	Telangana
B	Mandals at block level	2	Assam
C	Tribal Councils	3	Mizoram
D	Absence of Village Panchayats	4	Meghalaya

Codes:

A B C D

A. 3 1 4 2

B. 2 1 4 3

C. 2 1 3 4

D. 2 4 3 1

40. Rajasthan is the first state in India to adopt Panchayat Raj system in India [2^nd October, 1959] followed by the erstwhile Andhra Pradesh.Different states adopted them in due course. The PRIs got constitutional status during 1993. There were several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not such a provision?
A. A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary

Education and social forestry among others

B. Elections were made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due

C. A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, up to a third of the strength

D. Regular remuneration to the Panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability.

41. In which the following cases the President of India are not bound by the advice of the

“Council of Ministers”?

1. The choice of the Prime Minister.

2. The dismissal of a Government which refuses to quit, after having lost its majority in the House of the People.

3. The allocation of business.

4. The dissolution of the House, when appeal to the electorate becomes necessary.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4

42. Consider the following

1. Consolidated Fund of India

2. Contingent Fund of India

3. Public Account of India

Which of the above mentioned funds are kept under the control of President of India?

A. 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. All are kept under Parliament control.

43. Consider the following statements on the functions of the Chairperson, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

1. He can inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and

safeguards of the Scheduled Castes

2. Submit report to the President, annually and at such other times as the Commission may

deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards

3. He can make suggestions to Union or any State for the effective implementation of those

safeguards and other measures for the protection, welfare and socio-economic

development of the Scheduled Castes

4. He can include certain sections of people into scheduled castes category.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. All of them

44. Consider the following statements

1. The commission for Scheduled Castes is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory

body as it is created by a Cabinet Resolution.

2. The suggestions or advice made to Union and States by the Commission for the

promotion of the cause of SCs is binding on Union and states.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. Only 1 B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

45. According to Article 74 of the Constitution, which of the following statements relating to the

advice tendered by Ministers to the President would be correct?

A. It shall not be inquired into in any court.

B. It can be inquired into in the Supreme Court.

C. It can be inquired into in all the courts.

D. It cannot be inquired into in the High Courts.

46. The accountability or responsibility of the Prime Minister and Cabinet to the Lok Sabha is:

A. Intermittent B. Indirect

C. Only at the time of elections D. Direct, continuous and collective

47. Consider the following statements:

1) As regards legislative powers, the Governor of a State is not a part of the State Legislature.

2) The Governor of a State has no emergency powers to meet the situation arising from external aggression.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. Only 1 B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

48. Consider the following statements:

The Governor of a State has the power to appoint:

1) Judges of the High Court

2) Members of the State Public Service Commission

3) Members of the State Finance Commission

4) The Accountant General

Which of these statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

49. The correct constitutional position regarding the Governor is that the:

A. Governor acts on the advice of the Prime Minister.

B. Governor acts on the advice of the President of India.

C. Governor acts on the advice of the Chief Minister of the State.

D. Governor acts on the advice of the “Council of Ministers” of the State.

50. On which the following issues Governor can make recommendation to the President?

1) Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers

2) Removal of the Judges of the High Court

3) Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

4) Declaration of the breakdown of the Constitutional Machinery in the State.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below¨

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4

51. Consider the following statements:

1) Reservation of the State Bill for the consideration of the President.

2) Delivery of Speech in the House of the Legislature.

3) Recommendation to the President to impose the President’s Rule.

Under Article 163 of the Constitution of India, the Governor is required to act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers, but in relation to which of the matters given above, the said rule is not applicable?

A. 1 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. Only 2

52. Consider the following statements

1. It is obligatory on the part of Governor/s of four states, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Jharkhand to appoint a minister in-charge of tribal affairs.

2. He is responsible for distribution of royalties between state governments of Tripura, Assam, Mizoram and Meghalaya and Autonomous Hill Councils of these 4 states.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

53. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the Governor’s Ordinance-making power?

A. It is exercised only when the Legislature is not in session.

B. It is discretionary power which need not be exercised with the aid and advice of Ministers.

C. The Governor himself is competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.

D. The scope of the Ordinance-making power is limited to subjects in List II and List III of schedule VII.

54. In which the following bodies, does the Chief Minister of a State hold membership?

1. National Integration Council

2. National Development Council

3. Inter-State Council

4. Zonal Council

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D.2, 3 and 4

55. On which of the following subjects, does the Finance Commission of a State constituted

under the Part IX of the Constitution of India made recommendations to the Governor?

1. Distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes by the

State.

2. Determination of the taxes which may be assigned to or appropriated by the Panchayats.

3. Grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State.

Select the correct answer from codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 3 only

56. Consider the following statements.

1. Panchayats have now been brought under the direct supervision of the Governor.

2. Finance Commission of the State now determines the distribution of taxes and duties

between the State and Panchayats.

3. Panchayats are now entitled to receive grants-in-aid directly from the Central

Government.

4.1/3 of the seats in the Panchayats are now reserved for women.

According to the 73^rd Amendment of the Constitution, which of these are correct features of Panchayats?

A. 1 and 3 B.2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4

57. Who among the following are among those who comprise the Zilla Parishad?

1. Chairman/Presidents of the Panchayat Samities within the jurisdiction of the District.

2. MPs, MLAs and MLCs whose constituencies are in the district.

3. Representatives of co-operative societies, municipalities, notified area committees etc.

4. Health care specialists

Choose the correct answer from codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3 C.1, 2 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4

58. Consider the following pairs:

A	Cantonment Board	1	Administered centrally by Defense Ministry
B	Notified Area committe	2	Administers newly developing towns
C	Municipal Council	3	Administers big cities with complex problems
D	Municipal Corporation	4	Headed by an elected Mayor

Which of these pairs are correctly matched?

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 1 and 4 C.1, 2 and 4 D. 2 and 3

59. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Head of Local Bodies)		List II (Local associated)
A	Sarpanch	1	Municipal Corporation
B	Chairman	2	Village Panchayat
C	Mayor	3	Zilla Parishad
D	President	4	Block/Samithi

Code :

A B C D

A. 3 4 1 2

B. 4 3 2 1

C. 2 3 1 4

D. 2 3 4 1

60. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Committees/Amendments )		List II (Provisions)
A	Balwant Roy Mehta committee	1	Democratic decentralization
B	Ashok Mehta committe	2	Two tier system of Panchayat Raj
C	GVK Rao Committee	3	Administrative arrangement for Rural Development
D	LM Singhvi Committee	4	Constitutional status to Panchayat Raj

Code:

A B C D

A. 2 3 4 1

B. 2 3 1 4

C. 1 2 4 3

D. 1 2 3 4

61. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Institution/Agency)		List II (Nature of Act implemented/job)
A	CVC	1	RTI Act
B	CIC	2	Prevention of corruption Act
C	NHRC	3	Protection of Human Rights
D	UPSC	4	Recruitment to Group-A & other central Services

Code:

A B C D

A. 2 1 3 4

B. 2 1 4 3

C. 1 2 4 3

D. 4 3 2 1

62. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment? [2012]

A. Need not necessarily be a member of one of the House of the parliament but must become a member of one of the House within six months.

B. Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Loksabha within six months

C. Must be a member of one of the Houses of the parliament.

D. Must be a member of the Loksabha.

63. Consider the following statements:

1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.

2. He is the first law officer in a state and can attend any court in the State on behalf of state government.

Which one of these statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

64. Consider the following statements:

1. The GOI has abolished 65 years old Planning Commission for replacing with it by a new institution to address the emerging economic needs and strengthen federal structure.

2. The Planning Commission has failed to deliver goods in India

Which one of these statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

65. Consider the following statements:

1. The table of precedence is related to the rank and order of the officials of the Union and State Governments.

2. The order in the table of precedence is meant for state and ceremonial occasions and has no application in the day-to-day business of Government.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

66. What is the correct sequence of the following functionaries in the order of Precedence?

1. Judges of Supreme Court

2. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

3. Governors of States within their respective states

4. Former Prime Ministers

Select the correct answer from codes given below:

A. 4,1,3,2 B. 3,4,1,2 C. 4,3,2,1 D. 3,1,2,4

67. Who among the following ranks lowest in the Warrant of Precedence?

A. Attorney General of India B. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

C. Chairperson of the UPSC D. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

68. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of setting up of the given

Commissions concerning weaker sections of the Indian society?

A. Kaka Saheb Kalekar Commission – National Commission for Minorities – National

Commission for SCs & STs – Mandal Commission.

B. National Commission for SCs & STs – National Commission for Minorities- Kaka Saheb

Kalekar Commission - Mandal Commission.

C. Kaka Saheb Kalekar Commission - Mandal Commission - National Commission for

SCs & STs – National Commission for Minorities.

D. National Commission for SCs & STs – Mandal Commission - Kaka Saheb Kalekar

Commission - National Commission for Minorities

69. The constitutional authority vested with the power of declaring castes or tribes as the SCs or STs is the:

A. Parliament B. Union Home Minister

C. Chairman, SC/ST Commission D. President of India

70. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the National Commission for Backward Classes?

A. To examine requests for inclusion of a class of citizens as a backward class

B. To hear complaints of under inclusion of any backward class

C. To hear complaints of over inclusion of any backward class

D. To identify the creamy layer among the backward classes

71. Consider the following statements:

1. The Central Information Commission is a high-powered independent body.

2. The Central Information Commission is a constitutional body.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

72. The Central Information Commission entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions and public sector undertakings under the:

1. Central Government

2. State Government

3. Local Government

4. Union territories

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 4 B. Only 1 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 3

73. Consider the following statements:

1. The Central Information Commission can order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds

2. The Central Information Commission has the power to secure compliance of its decisions from the public authority.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

74. Who among the following are members of a committee that recommends the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner?

1) Prime Minister

2) Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha

3) Leader of opposition in the Rajya Sabha

4) Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister

5) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 C.1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 5

75. The Right to Information Act of 2005, provides for the creation of the:

1) Central Information Commission

2) State Information Commission

3) Joint State Information Commission

Select the correct answer from codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2 C.1 and 3 D. 2 and 3

76. Which one of the following is the main function of the Central Vigilance Commission?

A. To keep a watch on the investigation agencies in the country.

B. To expedite the disposal of criminal cases pending in the courts.

C. To scrutinize the utilization of developmental funds sanctioned by the Govt.

D. To inquire or cause an inquiry of alleged offence of a public servant.

77. The protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of:

A. National Human Rights Commission B. State Human Rights Commission

C. Joint State Human Rights Commission D. Human Rights Courts

Select the correct answer from codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D.1, 2 and 3

78. Consider the following statements:

1. The National Human Rights Commission is the watching of human rights in the country.

2. The National Human Rights Commission is an independent body.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

79. The Chairman and members of the National Human Rights Commission are appointed on the recommendations of a committee consisting of:

1. Speaker of the Lok Sabha 2. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

3. Leader of the opposition in the LS 4. Leader of the opposition in the RS

5. Prime Minister 6. Union Home Minister

Select the correct answer from codes given below:

A. 1,3,5 and 6 B. 1,2 and 5 C. 1,3,4 and 5 D. All of them

80. The ex-officio members of the National Human Rights Commission [NHRC] are:

1. Chairman of the National Commission for Minorities.

2. Chairman of the National Commission for SCs.

3. Chairman of the National Commission for STs.

4. Chairman of the National Commission for Women.

Select the correct answer from codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4

81. Consider the following functions:

1. Prescribing guidelines for preparation of the National Plan.

2. Reviewing periodically the working of the National Plan.

3. Recommending measures for the achievement of the aims and targets sets out in the

National Plan.

4. Assessing the material, capital and human resources of the country.

Which of these are the functions of the National Development Council?

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D.2, 3 and 4

82. Consider the following statements with regard to the Advocate General of a State:

1. He holds office during the pleasure of the President of India.

2. He can take part in the proceedings of the State Legislative Assembly.

3. His salary is paid from the Consolidated Fund of India.

4. He advises the State Government on legal matters.

Which of these is / are correct?

A. 2 and 4 B. Only 3 C. Only 1 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

83. Consider the following statements:

1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has no control over the issue of money

from the consolidated Fund of India.

2. The term of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has been fixed

by an Act enacted by Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

84. Which of the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is

/are true?

The Report of Comptroller and Auditor-General of India:

1. Can be considered by the Joint session of both houses of Parliament.

2. Includes examination of income & expenditure of all public sector undertakings

3. Is placed before the Lok Sabha with the comments of the Estimates Committee

4. Constitutes the basic for scrutiny by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.

Select the correct answer from codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 B.1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. Only 4

85. Who / which among the following performs the watching functions in the financial management in the Govt. of India?

1. The Controller General of India 2. The Comptroller & Auditor General of India

3. The Public Accounts Committee 4. The Finance Minister

Choose the correct answer from codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. Only 3 D. 1 and 4

86.Which of the following statements is not true?

A. A member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) holds office for a term of six

years or until he attains the age of 65 years.

B. The Chairperson UPSC is not eligible for further employment under the Govt. of India or

Govt. of any State after retirement.

C. One half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office for at least

10 years either under Govt. of India or Govt. of State.

D. The Chairperson and other members of the UPSC are appointed by the PM of India

87. Which of the following are the functions of the Union Public Service Commission?

1. To conduct examinations for recruitment to the services of the Union.

2. To advise on matters referred to it by the President or the Governor.

3. To advise on all disciplinary matters effecting a government servant.

4. To advise on the principles to be followed in respect of promotion and transfers.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3 C.1, 3 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4

88. Consider the following statements:

1. The term of office of the Election Commissioners is same as the Chairman of the

Union Public Service Commission.

2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and / or

other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred to the President of India.

3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324 of the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. Only 1 B. Only 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3

89. Who / which of the following is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area?

A. Governor of state B. Legislative Assembly of the State

C. Parliament of India D. President

90. Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India makes special administrative provisions in regard to the tribal areas in:

A. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram

B. Meghalaya, Assam, Nagaland and Manipur

C. Tripura, Manipur, Mizoram and Meghalaya

D. Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Assam and Tripura

91. Who / which of the following is empowered to direct that a law of Parliament does not apply

to a scheduled area?

A. Governor of state B. Supreme Court of India

C. High Court of the State D. President

92. As per the Sixth schedule to the Constitution of India, the rules for the first constitution of

District and Regional Councils are prepared by:

A. The Ministry of Home, Government of India.

B. The Chief Minister in consultation with existing tribal councils or other representatives

tribal organizations of the region.

C. The Governor in consultation with existing tribal councils or other representatives tribal

organizations of the region.

D. The State Legislature

93. Consider the following statements:

1. With the consent of the Government of India, the Governor of a State may entrust on the

Union Government or to its officers functions relating to a State subject, to which

executive power of that State extends.

2. The President of India cannot entrust to any State Government or to its officers, functions

in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.

3. There is a provision in the Constitution of India to create the National Integration Council.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 1 only

94. Which of the following statements are true with regard to powers, functions and status of Governor with regard to administration of Scheduled Areas?

1. The Governor can make regulations on prohibiting or restricting transfer of land from tribes

2. He can regulate the business of money lending in Scheduled areas and in this regard he may

repeal or amend the act of a State Legislature or Parliament

3. The Governor may by public notification direct that any particular Act of Parliament or of the

Legislature of the State shall not apply to a Scheduled Area or any part thereof in the state

4. He is the chairperson of Tribes Advisory Council [TAC] which is Apex body for taking decisions

on the socio-economic development of the Tribes.

A. All of them B. 1, 2, and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 3

95. Consider the followings statements

1. The National Judicial Appointments Commission [NJAC] comprises of six-members which

include Chief Justice of India as Chairman, Union Law Minister, two senior-most Supreme Court

judges and two eminent persons.

2. The two eminent persons will be selected by a collegium comprising of Prime Minister, Chief

Justice of India and leader of the opposition or the leader of the single largest party in the Lok

Sabha.

3. Among the two eminent persons, one eminent person should belong to the SC, ST, women or

Minority community, preferably by rotation and will have tenure of three years.

4. The NJAC will recommend to the President for the appointment and transfer of judges of higher

Judiciary, viz., Supreme Court and High Courts.

5. It will also make recommendations for the appointment of Chief Justice of India and Chief

Justices of High Courts.

Which of the above statements are NOT correct?

A. Only 3 B. Only 2 C. Only 1 D. All of them are correct

96. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The Parliament has passed 99^th Constitutional Amendment bill clearing way for giving constitutional status to NJAC and the same has been sent for ratification of the states

B. At-least 50% of the states have to ratify the bill, as it is Constitution Amendment Bill

C. The State Legislatures have to ratify the Legislation as with two-thirds majority

D. As per the bill, the CM and Governor of a state/s would be consulted before appointing a Judge/Chief Justice of High Court.

97. Which of the following persons/agencies are NOT under the purview of Lokpal as per the Lokpal bill passed by Parliament in 2013?

A) Prime Minister, Ministers and Members of Parliament

B) Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of Central Government.

C) Public- Private Partnerships [PPPs]

D) PSUs and bodies substantially financed & controlled by the Centre.

98. Which of the following articles of the constitution are amended and inserted by the Parliament and created “Judicial Appointments Commission” for the appointment and transfer of Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court?

1. 124 2. 217 (1) 3. 222 (1) 4. 124A, 124B and 124C

A) 1, 2 & 3 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) All of the above

99. Consider the following statements

1. In NCT of Delhi, (otherwise state) subjects such as police, land and forest are administered by the

Union Government.

2. The police work under the administrative control of Union Home Ministry.

3. Under the existing scheme of things, laws related to police, land and forest are made by both the

Delhi assembly and Parliament.

Which of the above statements are true?

A) 1,2 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1 & 3

100. Consider the following statements

1. All the contesting candidates have to maintain his or her poll related Expenditure in the books

prescribed by the ECI

2. According to 10A of RPA, if a candidate fails to lodge the accounts of election

expenses as required by law, he may be disqualified for 3 years from contesting the polls from the

date of disqualification.

3. Mrs. Umlesh Yadav, an elected MLA to the Bisauli in UP is the first politician to be disqualified by

the ECI for not lodging the election accounts during 2007

Which of the above statements are true?

A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Only 3 D) All of them

******

Dear Friends, Key for this exam will be placed in the blog in two days time. The Indian History 2nd test and descriptive questions also will be uploaded in 2 to 3 days time. You may attempt and benefit.

Yadagiri.

B. Yadagiri IRS

Sunday, 9 November 2014

CSP-2015:India Polity Test-2 Dt.31.10.2014

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