CSP-2015:India
Polity Test-3 Dt.15.11.2014
Instructions
1. Attempt all 100 questions.
2. All questions carry equal marks
3. Maximum marks:200
4. Time allowed: As per UPSC allows
5. Negative marking as per UPSC rules
*****
1. Consider
the following statements
1. Pro-tem Speaker performs the duties of the office
of the Speaker from the
commencement of the sitting of the
new Lok Sabha till the election of the Speaker.
2. It is convention that President
appoints a senior most member of Lok Sabha as
Pro-tem speaker and Mr. Mr. Kamal Nath, who has won from Chhindwara in Madhya
Pradesh for the ninth time was
appointed as pro-tem speaker for 16th Lok Sabha.
3. The pro-tem speaker administers the
oath to all the members of Lok Sabha
Which
of the above statements are true?
A.
All of them B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only
2. Consider the following statements
1. The elected members of the Lok Sabha
are elected directly by the people and members
of Rajya Sabha elected by the
elected representatives of the Legislative Assemblies and
UTs with assemblies. .
2. There exists reservation for SCs and
STs in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
3. In addition to elected members as
stated above, President has power to nominate 2
Anglo-Indian community members to
LS and 12 members to RS from amongst persons
having special knowledge in Literature,
Science, art and social service
Which
of the above statements are true?
A.
All of them B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only
3. Which of the following powers/functions are NOT associated with the
Rajya Sabha?
A. Origination of a
resolution seeking the removal of the Vice-President
B. Giving power to
Parliament for legislating on the issues enumerated in the state list in
national interest, by
passing resolution by a special majority
C. Creation of one or more
All India Services that it is necessary or expedient in national
interest by passing
resolution by special majority.
D. Disapproval of
continuance of national emergency under article 352 by in a special sitting
4. Match List I with II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
|
|
List I (Policy
Cuts/Motion)
|
|
List
II (Meaning)
|
|
A
|
Policy Cut
|
1
|
Disapproval of policy
behind the demand for Grants
|
|
B
|
Economy Cut
|
2
|
Aimed at reducing the
expenditure proposed by Govt.
|
|
C
|
Token Cut
|
3
|
Expression of special
grievance against Government
|
|
D
|
Motion
|
4
|
A
formal proposal by a member of a deliberative house to take certain action.
|
Codes:
A B
C D
A.
4
3 2 1
B.
4
3 1 2
C.
1
2 3 4
D.
2
1 4 3
5. Which of the following occasions doesn’t warrant resignation of
“Council of Ministers”?
A. Passing of Cut Motions
in the Lok Sabha
B. Defeat of Government
motion in Rajya Sabha
C. Non-acceptance of the motion for thanking
the President for his speech in the Budget
Session
D. Defeat of the any bill
introduced by the Government in Lok Sabha.
6. The Member of Parliament with the previous permission of the Speaker
or Chairman may raise any matter of urgent public importance and the Minister may
make a brief statement or ask for time for making a statement. There shall be
no debate on such statement at the time it is made, but with the permission of
the Speaker, a member may ask clarificatory question and the Minister shall
reply at the end to all such questions and subsequently at a later hour or date
of rise of such notice. If this notice is accepted by the Speaker, it has
precedence over other motions and the business would be kept aside. Identify
the Parliamentary instrument?
A. Calling attention B.
Adjournment motion
C. Half-an-hour
discussion D. Un-starred question
7. Consider the following statements
1. Parliamentary Committees
2. Cut Motions
3. No confidence Motions
4. Audit of the CAG and
perusal of this report by Public Accounts Committee
5. Motion of thanks to the
President’s address to the both houses of Parliament
6. Calling Attention
Which of the above are forms of exercising control over Executive by the
Parliament?
A. All of them B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 D. 1, 4, 5 and 6
8. Which of the following is not one of the sessions of Parliament of
India?
A. Budget Session B. Monsoon Session C. Summer Session D. Winter Session
9. Consider the following statements
1. Parliament shall meet at
least twice in a year and there shall not be a gap of not more than 6
Months time between two
sessions.
2. President decide the time
and seat of holding Parliament sessions and he has powers to
Commence and prorogue the
Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statements are true?
A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
10. Match List I with II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
|
|
List I (Parliamentary
Committees)
|
|
List
II (Factual position)
|
|
A
|
Public Accounts
Committee
|
1
|
Largest Committee in
Parliament
|
|
B
|
Committee of
Privileges
|
2
|
Acts as Ombudsman or
Lokayuktha
|
|
C
|
Committee on Petitions
|
3
|
Acts as Quasi-Judicial
body or committee
|
|
D
|
Estimates Committee
|
4
|
Oldest Parliamentary
Committee
|
Codes:
A B
C D
A.
4
3 2 1
B.
4
3 1 2
C.
1
2 3 4
D.
2
1 4 3
11. Match List I with II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
|
|
List I (Parliamentary
Device)
|
|
List
II (Factual position)
|
|
A
|
Starred Questions
|
1
|
Oral questions on an urgent issue of
public importance by giving notice 10 days in advance.
|
|
B
|
Unstarred Questions
|
2
|
Raising the issue of breach of parliamentary
Order or Law or Procedure.
|
|
C
|
Short Notice Questions
|
3
|
Written reply from Minister without
the facility of supplementary questions
|
|
D
|
Point of order
|
4
|
Oral reply from Minister with a
facility of supplementary questions
|
Codes:
A
B C D
A. 4
3 2 1
B. 4
3 1
2
C.
1
2 3 4
D.
2
1 4 3
12. Match
List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
|
List I (Mode of
arriving decision)
|
|
List
II (Meaning)
|
|
A
|
Simple Majority
|
1
|
More than 50% of the members present
and voting in a House.
|
|
B
|
Absolute Majority
|
2
|
More than 50% of the total
membership of the House.
|
|
C
|
Effective Majority
|
3
|
More than 50% of the members
actually present at any point of time in a House.
|
|
D
|
Special Majority
|
4
|
More than 50% of the members of the
House concerned and 2/3rd of the members present and voting in a
House.
|
Codes:
A B
C D
A. 4
3 2 1
B.
4
3 1 2
C. 1
2 3 4
D.
2
1 4 3
13. Consider the following statements:
1. The Resolution for impeachment of
the President can be introduced in the either House of the Parliament.
2. The President should be served a
notice 14 days in advance with 1/4th of Members of the House signed
of the originating house.
3. The President has a right to defend himself or engaged a Counsel on
his behalf.
4. After deliberations, if the resolution is passed by a simple majority
in both house of Parliament, the President stands removed or impeached.
Which of the above statements are true?
A. 1, 2 & 4 B. 1, 3 & 4 C.
1 & 2 D. 1, 2
& 3
14. Which one of the following
statements are not true?
A. If any Member of Parliament continiously absent
unauthorisedly for 60 days, the said Member loses his or her membership.
B. If any Member get elected to both the
Houses of Parliament, he has to lose his Lok Sabha membership.
C. If any Member get elected both Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha and State
Legislature, he has to lose one of the membership.
D. If any member elected to both Houses of Parliament, Member has to
send his resignation to the Speaker or Chairman of Council of State as the case
may be.
15.
Consider the following bills:
1. Bill intending creation of new
states
2. Money Bills as defined under
Article 110 of the Constitution
3. A Bill which levy taxes interested by the States and a bill intended
for reconsidering the taxation of Agriculture.
4. All the State Bills which restrict freedom of trade
Which of the above statements are true?
A. All of the above B. 1, 3
& 4 C. 1 & 2 1, 2 & 3
16. Consider the following
statements
1. Indian Parliament is sovereign on the lines
of the Parliament of U.K.
2. Indian Constitution sovereign.
Which of the above statements are true?
A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
17. Consider the following Statements.
A bill has been passed by one house of the Parliament and
transmitted to the other house and which of the
following situation does not warrant / not possible for convening joint sitting
of the Parliament by the President of the India.
A. The other house rejects
the Bill.
B. Not taken any action
on the Bills for more than 6 months.
C. Make certain suggestions
which are not acceptable to the originating House of a Bill.
D. In the case of Money Bill and Constitution Amendment Bills.
18. Consider the following Parliamentary procedure
/ Processes:
1. Initiation and passing of Confidence / No
Confidence Motions.
2. Introduction of Money & Financial Bills.
3. Initiation and passing of Cut Motions.
4. Initiation of a Bill for creating a New State.
Which of the above powers / functions are not within the purview of Rajya
Sabha?
A. 1
& 3 B. 2
& 3 C. 1 & 2 D. All of the above.
19. Which of the following
statements are not correct about the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
A. He presides over the Joint Sitting of both
Houses of the Parliament.
B. He is ex-officitio Chairman of certain
committees of Parliament and he appoints Chairman
to the various
companies.
C. Under the Anti-Defection Law,
the Authority of the Speaker is final and not subjected to judicial review.
D. He certifies Bill as a Money Bill and his
decision is final on the issue.
20. Consider the following statements delineating the different stages
of a Bill in the Parliament:
1. Publication of the Bill
in the Gazette of India.
2. General discussions on
the principle underline the Bill.
3. Referring a Bill to a Select
Committee or Joint Committee or circulated to public for eliciting
their opinion or
suggestions
4. A detailed clause by
clause discussion on the Bill and movement of the amendments.
5. Presentation of the Bill for voting.
6. Presentation of the Bill for the assent of the
President.
Arrange the above stages of the bills in a chronological order, starting
from the initiation of bill to become Act.
A. 1,
2, 3, 4, 5 & 6 B. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
& 6
C. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 & 6 D. 6, 5, 4, 3, 2 & 1
21. Which of the following statements
are not true regard to Money Bills?
A. Money Bills cannot be introduced in the Rajya
Sabha.
B. The President cannot sent back a Money Bills
to the Parliament for re-consideration.
C. The Rajya Sabha has no role in passing of Money
Bills in the Parliament.
D. All the Money
Bills and Financial Bills cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha without the
prior approval of President.
22. Which of the following
committees of Parliament is not a Finanical Committee?
A. Estimates Committee B.
Public Accounts Committee
C. Committee on Office of Profit D. Committee on
Public Undertaking
23. Consider the following Statements:
1.
Since
the sums required to meet expenditure described by the Constitution of India as
expenditure charged upon the Consolidated fund of India are not submitted to
the vote of Parliament, no house is competent to discuss these estimates.
2. Annual Finance Bill provides the legal
authority for the withdrawal of sums from the consolidated fund of India.
Which of the statements
given above is / are correct?
A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
24. Consider the following Statements
relating to the procedure of the election of the Speaker and
the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha:
1) The election of a Speaker shall be
held on such date as the Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary General shall
send to every member notice of this date.
2) The election of a Deputy Speaker shall
be held on such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary General shall
send to every member notice of this date.
Which of the statements
given above is / are correct?
A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
25. Consider the following statements
1. The members contesting for Lok Sabha shall not contest from more than
one constituency in
India, as per the rules made by the
ECI
2. The member who would get elected from two constituencies will have to
resign from one of the
Constituencies and therefore causing
cost to exchequer for conduct of by-elections.
Which of the statements
given above is / are correct?
A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
26. Consider the following Statements:
1) The nature of a Bill, if it is
certified by the Speaker of the House of People as a Money Bill, is not open to
question in a Court of Law.
2) The President of India has the power
to question the nature of a Bill to be taken as a Money Bill even if it is
certified to be so by the Speaker of the House of People.
Which of the statements
given above is / are correct?
A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
27. What does the ‘Rule of Lapse’
mean?
A. All pending bills in Parliament lapse
with its prorogation.
B. All appropriations voted by the
Parliament expire at the end of the financial year.
C. The demand for grants of a ministry
lapses with criticism of its policy by the opposition.
D. The appropriation bill lapses if it is
not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days.
28. Consider the following Statements:
The expenditure charged on the consolidated
Fund of India comprises:
1) Pension payable to Judges of High
Court.
2) Debt charges for which the Govt. of
India is liable.
3) Salary, allowances and pension payable
to Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements
given above is / are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 2 only
29. The primary object of the
adjournment motion in Parliament is to:
A. Collect information from Ministers on certain urgent public issue
B. Make a cut in the budget proposals
C. Criticize a particular policy of the Government
D. To topple the Government
30. Match List I with II and select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
|
List I (Procedure)
|
|
List
II (Implications)
|
|
A
|
Division
|
1
|
Brings the debate to a
close
|
|
B
|
Guillotine
|
2
|
Formal proposal made
by a member to the house
|
|
C
|
Motion
|
3
|
Relates to
interpretation or enforcement of the rules of procedure or Constitution
|
|
D
|
Point of order
|
4
|
Concludes discussion
on demand for grants
|
|
|
|
5
|
Mode of arriving at a
decision
|
Codes:
A B C D
A. 4 5 1 2
B. 5 4 1 3
C. 5 4 2 3
D. 4 5 2 1
31. Which one of the following is the
correct sequence of the given stages in relation to the
Enactment of the budget?
a) Voting of demands for grants-General
discussion-consideration and passing the Appropriation Bill-Consideration and
passing of the Finance Bill.
b) General discussion-Voting of demands
for grants-consideration and passing of the Appropriation Bill-Consideration
and passing of the Finance Bill.
c) Voting of demands for
grants-consideration and passing of the Appropriation Bill-Consideration and
passing of the Finance Bill- General-discussion.
d) General discussion-consideration &
passing of the Finance Bill-consideration & passing of the Appropriation
Bill-Voting of demands for grants.
32.
Which of the following bills, the President can return to the Union cabinet or
State
Legislature through Governor for
reconsideration?
A.
Constitutional
Amendment Bill
B.
Money
Bill within the meaning of Art 110
C.
Money
bill of a State reserved by the Governor of the concerned State to President.
D.
None
of the above.
33. Consider the following statements:
1) A bill returned by the President for
reconsideration does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
2) A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and
pending in the Raja Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3) A bill under consideration of the Lok
Sabha lapses when the Lok Sabha is prorogued.
4) A bill pending in the Rajys Sabha but
not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements
given above are correct?
A. 2, 3 and 4 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2 and 4
34. Under Article 368 of the
Constitution of India, a Constitutional Amendment Bill is passed by
the Parliament by:
A.
Simple
majority of members present and voting.
B. Two-thirds majority of members present
and voting.
C. Three-fourths majority of members
present and voting.
D. Majority of total membership and
majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
35. Which one of the following is true
of the Appropriation Act?
A.
It
is the demand for grants approved by the Parliament.
B. It applies to approval of the budget
by the Parliament.
C. Authorisation by the Parliament for
withdrawal of money from the consolidated fund.
D. Authorisation by the Parliament for
withdrawal of money from the contingency fund.
36. Which one of the following
statements is correct with regard to the power of Parliament in
Enacting the Budget?
A.
It
can increase a tax, but not reduce it.
B. It can increase a tax, as well as
reduce or abolish it.
C. It cannot increase a tax, but can
reduce or abolish it.
D. It can neither increase a tax nor
reduce it.
37. The Demands for Supplementary
Grants must be presented to and passed by the House:
A.
Before
the end of the respective financial year.
B. Before the budget of the following
year is passed.
C. After the withdrawal of money from the
Consolidated Fund.
D. After the submission of report of CAG.
38. Match List I with II and select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
|
List I (Procedure)
|
|
List
II (Implications)
|
|
A
|
Vote on account
|
1
|
Lumpsum money granted
without detailed estimates
|
|
B
|
Vote on credit
|
2
|
Additional expenditure
not covered in the approved budget
|
|
C
|
Supplementary demand
for grants
|
3
|
Amount spent in excess
of the grants
|
|
D
|
Excess demand for
grants
|
4
|
Grants in advance
pending budgetary approval
|
Codes:
A B C D
A. 1 4 3 2
B. 1 4 2 3
C. 4 1 2 3
D. 4 1 3 2
39. What is meant by ‘Zero Hour’?
A.
Exact
time when the question hour ends.
B. Time between question hour and next
item on the agenda
C. Time allotted for informal discussion
between two stages of discussion on a bill
D. Specific time allotted for a
discussion on budget.
40. When an Ordinary Bill is referred
to a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, it has to be passed by a:
A.
Simple
majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting.
B. Two-thirds majority of the total
number of members of both the Houses.
C. Simple majority of the total number of
members of both the Houses.
D. Two-thirds majority of the total
number of members of both the Houses present and voting.
41. Which among the following are the
merits of the Parliamentary Departmental Standing
Committees constituted to scrutinise the
budget proposals?
1) Legislative control is now more legal
because the committees are established by law.
2) Experts and specialists have been
nominated to help the members of the Parliament.
3) Legislative control is now much more
close, continuous and in-depth.
4) The Rajya Sabha and the opposition
parties can play a greater role in exercising financial control.
Select the correct
answer from the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4
42. Match List I with II and select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
|
List I (Parliamentary
Committee )
|
|
List
II (Functions)
|
|
A
|
Select Committee
|
1
|
Allocates time for
discussion on various items
|
|
B
|
Committee on petitions
|
2
|
Considers the question
of contempt of the House
|
|
C
|
Business Advisory
Committee
|
3
|
Entertains
representations from individuals
|
|
D
|
Estimates Committee
|
4
|
Scrutinises a bill
clause by clause and suggests changes
|
|
|
|
5
|
Examines departmental
expenditure in the budget
|
Codes:
A B C D
A. 4 3 1 5
B. 3 4 1 5
C. 4 3 5 2
D. 3 4 5 2
43. Match List I with
List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
|
List I (Parliamentary
Committee )
|
|
List
II (Implications)
|
|
A
|
Rules Committee
|
1
|
Examination of
Appropriation Accounts
|
|
B
|
Public Accounts
Committee
|
2
|
Considers matters of
procedure in the House
|
|
C
|
Committee on
Subordinate Legislation
|
3
|
Examination of rules
made by the executive departments under the Acts passed by the legislature
|
|
D
|
Committee on Public
undertakings
|
4
|
Review of the working
of the public sector undertakings
|
|
|
|
5
|
Control of the
department of public
|
Codes:
A B C D
A. 1 2 3 5
B. 2 1 3 4
C. 3 4 1 2
D. 5 1 2 3
44. Which of the following Committees
consist of representatives of both the Houses namely Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sahba?
1) Estimates Committee.
2) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
3) Public Accounts Committee
4) Committee on Public undertakings.
Select the correct answer
from the codes given below:
A. 1 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
45. Consider the
following statements
1. Section 8(4) of
RPA, 1951 which was saving the convicted law makers on criminal charges
From disqualification,
if they apply for bail within 3 months was struck down as un-
constitutional
by the Supreme Court.
2. This decision
has removed the discrimination between MPs/MLAs and the ordinary citizens
3. This decision
applies to those who got conviction for less than 2 years also.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
Only 1 B) Only 2 C) 1 & 2 only D) 1,2 & 3.
46. The Supreme Court has held that person in lawful custody
whether convicted in a criminal case or otherwise cannot contest elections too.
In fact, the SC has upheld the decision of Patna High Court given in 2004. This
judgment is given while interpreting which of the sections of Representation of the People Act, 1951
A) 62(5) B) 8(4) C) 62(4) D) None
47. Consider the following
statements
1. Article 102 (1) (e) provides
for disqualification to MPs by or under any law made by
Parliament.
2. Article 191(1) (e) provides for disqualification to
MLAs/MLCs
by or under any law made by
Parliament.
3. The section 8(4) was giving exception to
the automatic disqualification of
MPs/MLA
& MLCs under the articles 102(1)(e) & 191(1)(e) upon conviction.
Which of the above statements are true?
A.
Only 3 B) 1 & 3 C) Both 1 & 2 D) None
48. Which of the following bills
would not lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha ?
1) All the bills passed by LS & transmitted and pending before RS.
2) A bill originated in RS & it is under consideration of the house
3) All the bills passed by the RS and are pending before LS
4) Bills passed by both houses and presented to President for assent or
the bills returned by the
President for reconsideration
A)
2 & 4 B) 1 & 2 C)
1 & 3 D) 1 & 4
49. Which of the following is not an
effect of operation of anti-defection law in India, since its introduction in
1985 and as strengthened in 2002?
A)
Centralization of decision making
process in political parties- Legislators can’t stand against party leaders or
defy the party whip and use conscience to vote in the house
B)
Merger in the political parties for
extraneous reasons
C)
The presiding officer, being the
sole and final authority of deciding the questions arising out of the
provisions of the Act, lead to discriminatory stance taken by him to suit the
needs of the Governments in power.
D)
It contributed for the enhancement
of prestige of the Legislature
50. Consider the following statements:
1)
The
Speaker of the Loksabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on
prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House
2)
Unless
sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic
dissolution of the LokSabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five
years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3)
The
Speaker of Loksabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House
and until ‘immediately before the first meeting of the House’
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and
2 B) 2 and
3 C) 1
and 3 D)
1, 2 and 3
51. Consider the following statements
1. The Lok Adalats
in India made a world record by disposing of 35.1 lakh case in 8 hours across
India
2. The
advent of Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 gave a statutory status to Lok
Adalats, pursuant to
the
constitutional mandate in Article 39-A of
the Constitution of India.
3. Every award, generally made on the consent
of the contesting parties, by Lok Adalat shall be final and
binding on all the parties to the dispute,
and no appeal shall lie to any court against the award.
4. A
Permanent Lok Adalat can pass an award on merits, even without the consent of
parties and such
an award is final
and binding and no appeal lies against it. Which of the above statements are
correct?
A)
1, 2 & 3 B) 2,3 & 4 C) 1, 3 & 4 D) All of the above
52. The Union Cabinet has recently
cleared a proposal from a state to create “Legislative Council” in a state and
a bill is introduced in the Parliament to create Legislative council in another
state. Identify the said states in that order.
A.
Assam & Rajastan
B.
Tamil Nadu & Assam
C.
Rajastan & Meghalaya
D. Assam & Kerala
53. In India a spirited citizen can
take a matter of public importance, though he or she is not affected, to Court
for justice and this has been admitted by court under “PIL”. The PIL is
admitted under which of the article/s of the constitution?
A.
Art. 32
B. Art. 226 C. Art. 32 & 226 D. U/s 133 of Cr. Procedure Code
[Cr.PC]
54. Which of the following lists, the State
Legislature has competence to make laws?
A. State list and concurrent list.
B. In the
Union list, if Rajya Sabha approves it.
C. State list
only.
D. In the
concurrent list with the permission of the Parliament.
55. Which of the following combination of States
have bi-Cameral Legislature?
A. J&K, U.P., Bihar, & Odissa
B. A.P., Telangana, Karnataka &
Kerla
C. Maharashtra, Karnataka,
A.P. & Telangana
D. Bihar, Gujrat & Rajasthan
56. The
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by:
a)
Parliament
by law.
b)
Parliament
by resolution
c)
The
President
d)
The
President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
57. Which of the following statement describes the essence
of the “doctrine of severability” in Indian Constitutional set up?
A. Quashing of law
made by the Parliament
B. Separation of
valid portion of law from the invalid portion
C. Declaring a law
made by Parliament as un-constitutional
D. Passing of
strictures on the law made the Legislature
58. Consider
the following Statements:
1.
The
nature of a Bill, if it is certified by the Speaker of the House of People as a
Money Bill, is not open to question in a Court of Law.
2.
The
Chairman, Rajya Sabha has the power to question the nature of a Bill to be
taken as a Money Bill even if it is certified to be so by the Speaker of the
House of People.
Which
of the statements given above is / are correct?
A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
59. Money bills and Financial Bills, category-A has to be
introduced in Lok Sabha only with the prior recommendation of the President of
India. With regard to Financial Bills, category-A what are the powers of Rajya
Sabha?
1. It has to be returned to Lok Sabha
with in a period of fourteen days from the
date of its receipt, with or without
recommendations.
2. The Rajya Sabha can reject it
3. May keep beyond 14 days and pass
recommendations as it deem fit.
4. May not take any action up to 6 months, so
that President may call for Joint
meeting of two houses to decide the fate
of the bill.
Which of the above
statements are true?
A.
Only 1 B. Only 2 & 3 C. Only 3 & 4 D. 1 and 2 only
60. Match List I with
List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
|
List I (Jurisdiction
of Supreme Court )
|
|
List
II (Types of cases)
|
|
A
|
Division
|
1
|
Mode of arriving at a
decision
|
|
B
|
Roll call vote
|
2
|
A vote taken by having members call out "aye" or
"no" at the chair's direction.
|
|
C
|
Voice vote
|
3
|
A vote taken by
having members stand
|
|
D
|
Rising Vote
|
4
|
procedure by which the vote of each member is formally
recorded in the minutes
|
|
|
|
5
|
A means of taking action on a motion without a formal vote
|
Codes:
A B C D
A. 1 4 2 3
B. 1 4 3 5
C. 4 3 2 5
D. 4 3 5 2
61. What is the doctrine of repugnancy in Indian
Constitution?
A.
State cannot make any laws on the
issue/s where Centre has passed order
B.
State Law would be void to the extent of repugnancy to the
Union Law
C.
States have to obtain the permission of Union Government to
make laws in the concurrent List
D.
None of the above.
62. Match List I with II and select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
|
List I (Jurisdiction
of Supreme Court )
|
|
List
II (Types of cases)
|
|
A
|
Appellate Jurisdiction
|
1
|
Acts as a court of record and also
has power to review its own judgements
|
|
B
|
Advisory Jurisdiction
|
2
|
Any question of law or fact of
public importance referred
|
|
C
|
Miscellaneous powers
|
3
|
Civil cases, criminal cases and
constitutional cases
|
|
D
|
Original Jurisdiction
|
4
|
Acts as a federal court
|
Codes:
A B C D
A. 3 2 1 4
B. 2 3 1 4
C. 3 4 2 1
D. 2 4 3 1
63.
Consider the following statements:
A Bill is reserved by the Governor
of a State for the consideration of the President. The President may:
a)
Give his assent to the Bill
b)
Withhold his assent to the Bill
c)
Veto the Bill
d)
Direct the Governor of the State to
return it to the House of reconsideration.
Which of these are correct?
A. 1,2 & 3
B. 3 & 4 C. 1,2 &
4 D. All of the above
64. The Legislative Assembly of a State can pass a
resolution to abolish or create a Legislative Council in the state by a:
A.
Majority of not less than 2/3 of the
members of the Legislative Assembly present and voting.
B.
Majority of not less than 1/3 of the
members of the Legislative Assembly present and voting.
C.
Majority of the total membership of
the Legislative Assembly and by majority of not less than 2/3 of the members
present and voting.
D.
Simple Majority of the members of
the Legislative Assembly.
65. Consider the following statements [CSP 2012]
1)
Union
Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha
2)
It
is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the
election disputes.
3)
According
to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the
RajyaSabha only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(c) 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. None
66. Who among the following appoints the District Judge in a
State?
A. Governor
of a state B.
President of India
C. The Chief
Minister of a state C.
Chief Justice of High Court of the state
67. Consider the following statements:
1) A retired Supreme Court Judge cannot
act as a Judge of the Supreme Court even for a temporary period.
2) A High Court Judge may be appointed as
an ad-hoc Judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period.
Which of the statements
given above is / are correct?
A.
Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
68. Consider the following statements:
1. Any dispute between the Government of
India and one or more states.
2. Any dispute between the Government of
India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the
other.
3. Any dispute between the Government of
India and any Corporation or Individual on one side and one or more other
States on the other.
4. Any dispute between two or more
States.
5. Any dispute arising out of
pre-constitutional treaty, covenant or any other similar instrument which has
continued thereafter between Centre and states or among states
Which of the statements
given above is / are correct?
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5
B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 3
and 4 D. 1, 3, 4 and 5
69. What is the basis for determining the number
of seats in the State Legislature?
A. Population B. Health Indicators C.
Backwardness D. None of them
70. Consider the
following statements
1. In India both the Supreme Court
[Art. 129] and High Courts [Art. 215] are Courts of Record
and they are called so, because all
their proceedings and acts are recorded.
2. The implication of that is that it
has power to punish for its contempt necessarily follows from
that position.
Which of the statements given
above is / are correct?
A.
Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
71. Which one of the following
statements regarding the exercise of judicial review is not correct?
A.
A
case must be brought before the Supreme Court regarding the validity of a law.
B. Unanimous opinion of all the judges is
necessary for declaring a law null and void.
C. Legislative enactments and executive
orders may be struck down by the Supreme Court.
D. The power is implicit in the provisions
of Article 13 of the Constitution.
72. Consider the
following statements
1. Judicial Review is a process to
restrain the executive or the legislature from exercising
power which may not be sanctioned
by the Constitution.
2. The source of the power of judicial
review is Article 13 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements
given above is / are correct?
A.
Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
73. Consider the following statements:
1) Parliament can extend, but cannot
curtail the jurisdiction and power of the Supreme Court.
2) No discussion can take place in
Parliament with respect to the conduct of any judge of the Supreme Court in the
discharge of his duties.
3) A retired judge of the Supreme Court
cannot appear or plead in any court or before any authority within the
territory of India.
4) The salaries and allowances of the
judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements
given above is / are correct?
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 4
74. Which one of the following is not
an essential condition for appointment as a judge of the Supreme
Court?
A.
A
citizen of India
B. At least five years experience as
judge of High Court or of two or more such courts is succession.
C. Must have completed 35 years of age.
D. At least ten years experience as judge
of High Court or of two or more such courts is succession.
75. Which one of the following statement
is not correct?
A.
A
retired judge of the Supreme Court is prohibited from appearing and pleading in
any court within the territory of India.
B. Supreme Court may issue writs for the
enforcement of any legal right within the territory of India.
C. Supreme Court has the power to punish
any person for its contempt.
D. Salary of Judges of the Supreme Court
is not subject to vote of the legislature.
76. Consider the following statements
regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
1) The reference for advice may be made
to the Supreme Court on a question of law or fact by the President of India.
2) Disputes arising out of
pre-constitution treaties and agreements excluded from the original
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may also be referred to it.
3) The advice given by the Supreme Court
is binding on the Government.
4) One of the cases referred to the
Supreme Court for its advice was the constitutionality of the Kerala Education
Bill.
Which of these are
correct?
A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 3 and 4
77. Appellate jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to civil matters
pertains only to a:
A. Substantial Question of
Law B. Question of Law
C. Question of fact D. Mixed
question of fact and law
78. Law declared by the Supreme Court
shall be binding on all the courts within the territory of India.
Here ‘courts’ mean
A.
All
courts including the Supreme Court of India.
B. All courts except the Supreme Court of
India.
C. All courts including the Supreme Court
except such benches of the Supreme Court which consists of seven judges or
more.
D. All courts including the Supreme Court
except a bench of the Supreme Court which consists of all the judges of the
Supreme Court.
79. Which one of the following
statement is not correct?
The power of judicial review means the
power of the Supreme Court to:
A.
Set
aside any executive decision if it is against statutory law.
B. Set aside any provision of law if it
is contrary to the Fundamental Rights.
C. Examine constitutional validity of any
administrative action as well as legislative provision and strike it down if
not found in accordance with the constitutional provisions.
D. Review its own decisions or decisions
of any court or tribunal within the territory of India.
80.Match List I with II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
|
|
List I (Jurisdiction
of Court )
|
|
List
II (Name of the court )
|
|
A
|
Highest Court at
district in criminal matters
|
1
|
Chief Judicial
Magistrate Court
|
|
B
|
Highest Court at
district in civil matters
|
2
|
City Civil Court
|
|
C
|
Highest Court in
Metropolitan areas in criminal matters
|
3
|
Sessions Judge Court
|
|
D
|
Highest Court in Metropolitan
areas in criminal matters
|
4
|
District Court
|
Codes:
A B C D
A. 3 4 1 2
B. 3 4 2 1
C. 3 4 2 1
D. 2 4 1 3
81. Which of the following statements
are NOT correct?
A. The scope of the Jurisdiction of Supreme Court and High Courts can be
enhanced by the Parliament by law
B. In the case of enhancing the jurisdiction of High Court, the views of
the respective state
Government/s is to be taken into
consideration by the Parliament
C. The scope and jurisdiction of the Supreme and High Courts can never
be curtailed
D. The Parliament has power to extend the jurisdiction one High Court to
more than one state or UTs.
82. Consider the following statements
1. The Supreme Court and High Courts have diluted the principle of “locus standi” or the
Principle of adversarial
jurisprudence, i.e., the aggrieved person can only approach court for
redressal of grievances in India
2. The Public Interest Litigation
case, as the name suggest, can be filed by anybody on behalf of
the poor and vulnerable sections who don’t have wherewithal to approach
higher Judiciary
for their problems
3. There is a criticism on the higher
Judiciary in India that in the disguise of protecting the
fundamental rights f the citizens, the Judiciary has encroached into the
domain of Executive
and Legislature.
Which of the above statements are
true?
A.
1
and 2 B. 1, 2 and
3 C. 1 and 3 D. None of them
83. What is the primary objective of
“Lok Adalats”?
A. To provide justice to affluent sections of people who can spend
maximum money for the
sake of speedy justice
B. To encourage lawyers to provide free legal aid
C. To reduce the burden of cases on the Higher Judiciary
D. To help the backward sections of people by providing speedy justice
in less cost and time
84. Which of the options correctly
indicates the types of judges who perform their duties as judges of Supreme
Court?
A. Regular, Acting and Additional judges
B. Regular, Ad-hoc and Additional judges
C. Regular, Ad-hoc and Acting judges
D. Only Regular judges
85. Which of the
following statements are NOT true on the advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court
under article 143 of Indian constitution?
A. The President is competent to ask advice
of Supreme Court on any question of
Law or fact public importance and on
any dispute arising out of nay pre-
Constitution treaty, agreement etc
B. The Supreme court is duty bound given
advice on the subject of any dispute
with regarding to pre-constitutional
agreement
C. The Supreme Court may refuse to give its
advice on any question of law or Fact
D. The advice given by Supreme Court in
presidential reference under
article 143 is binding on the President and also on all
Courts
86. The resignation of
the Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts are respectively submitted to
A. President B.
President and Governor respectively
C. President and CJI respectively D. CJI of Supreme Court.
87. Consider the
following statements
1. The members of Parliament other than
“Council of Ministers” are called as
“Private members” and the bills introduced by
them as “Private member’s bill”
2. The last two
and a half hours of a sitting on Friday shall be allotted for the transaction
of
Private members' business
3.
For introducing the bill, a private member shall give a prior notice one month unless
the Speaker allows introduction at a shorter notice.
1. Since,
1970, no private member’s bill is passed in Parliament
Which
of the above statements are true?
A.
All
of them B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
88. Consider the
following statements
2. The number of seats allocated in
Parliament to each and every state will not change, but
the seats reserved for SCs and STs
will change in proportion to their population as per
the latest census.
3. The Government of India has fixed and
sealed the number of constituencies of Parliament
till 2026 on the basis of 2011
census.
4. The orders of the Delimitation of
Commission of India cannot be challenged in a court of
Law, though the orders are laid
before the Lok Sabha and the respective State Legislative
Assemblies only for information and
not for modification.
Which
of the above statements are true?
A.
All
of them B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
89. Consider the
following statements
1. As per the Salary and Allowances of
Leader of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977, the
largest party in Lok Sabha shall get
the post of Leader of Opposition [LOP] which is in
the rank of Cabinet Minister.
2.
The another condition to claim LOP in Lok Sabha is securing atleast 10% of the
total
membership of the house, i.e., 55 in
Lok Sabha.
3. The post LOP in Lok Sabha has to be
recognized so by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. The Leader
of the Opposition also participates in committees along with the Prime
Minister to select important
positions, including the chief of the anti-graft Central
Vigilance Commission and the members
of the National Ombudsman or Lokpal.
5. As per the existing rules and traditions, the
Single largest party in this regard, include a
single party or an alliance of parties
Which of the above
statements are true?
A.
All
except 5 B. All except 4 C. All except 3 D. All of them
90. Match List I with II and select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
|
List I (Doctrine )
|
|
List
II (Meaning )
|
|
A
|
Doctrine of
Severability
|
1
|
Present interpretation
shall not affect past law
|
|
B
|
Doctrine of Colorable
legislation
|
2
|
Interpreting the
provisions of Constitution on the basis of changed social, economic
conditions
|
|
C
|
Doctrine of
Progressive interpretation
|
3
|
The law which
Legislature can’t make openly, can’t be made in disguise
|
|
D
|
Doctrine of prospective
over-ruling
|
4
|
Separation of good law
and bad law
|
Codes:
A B C D
A. 3 4 1 2
B. 3 4 2 1
C. 4 3 1 2
D. 4 3 2 1
91. Consider the
following statements
1. The censure motion can be initiated
against “Council of Ministers” or individual Ministers
and the opposition need not specify
any reasons for moving the Motion in Parliament
2. The no-confidence motion can be
initiated against only “Council of Ministers”, but reasons
to be spelt out for moving the motion
in Lok Sabha.
Which of the above
statements are true?
A.
Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
92. Which of the
following statements are not true about Delegated Legislation?
A. It is a parallel Legislative power
given to the Executive
B. The Parliament spelt out a broad or
main feature of the Legislation and leaves
procedural and formal details to be
framed by Executive or a body authorized by
President
C. This is done to save precious time of
the Parliament and to add technical expertise in
dealing with the subject concerned
D. All the delegated legislation has to
get approval of the Parliament, after being vetted by
the “Committee on Subordinate Legislation”
93. Consider the following statements
1. The Constitution of India has
specifically told that the consultation of President with the
Chief Justice of India as
“Concurrence” and therefore no role was given to Executive in
selecting the Judges for higher
Judiciary.
2. The Supreme Court has interpreted
article 124(2) in a way that the opinion of CJI has
primacy over the opinion of the
President and due course completely excluded Executive
to play any meaningful role in
appointment of Judges to higher Judiciary.
Which of the above
statements are true?
A.
Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
94. Consider the
following High Courts
1. High Court of judicature at Hyderabad 2. Bombay High Court
3. Calcutta High Court 4.
Gauhati High Court
5. Kerala High Court
6. Madras High Court
7. High Court of Punjab and Haryana
Which of the above High
Courts have jurisdiction over more than one state/s in India?
A.
1,
2, 4 and 7 B. 2, 3, 5 and 6 C. All of them D. 1, 2, 4, 6 and 7
95. Consider the following statements
1. The Central Government has created
National Tax Tribunal in 2005 to deal with the tax
related cases all over India, under
article 323B of the Constitution and to that extent
taken away the powers from High
Courts .
2. The Supreme Court has struck down the
NTT Act, 2005 as un-constitutional on the
grounds of encroaching on the
powers of High Courts vested under article 217
Which of the above
statements are true?
A.
Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
96. Consider the
following statements
1. The Family Courts Act 1984 provided
for creation of the family courts by the State
Governments in consultation with the
Chief Justice of High Court in cities with a
population of 10lakhs and above or
any other place as it deem fit
2. These courts deals with the cases
related to settlement of disputes relating to marriage
and family affairs.
3. They follow the methods of mediation
and reconciliation and solve the problems by
mutual consent
4. The High Courts are competent to
transfer cases from one family court to another
Which of the above
statements are true?
A.
All
of them B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
97. Which of the
following has to give certification for going to appeal against the order of
High Court in civil and criminal matters before the Supreme Court?
A. High Court B. A notary
C. The aggrieved person D. The District Court where the appellant
lives
98. Consider the
following statements
1. Article 124(4) and article
217(1) and 218 provides for the removal of a judge of the Supreme
Court and High Court
respectively on the grounds of proved misbehavior and incapacity
2. The presiding officer
has to appoint a 3 member judicial committee to investigate the incapacity
and proved
misbehavior
3. They would be removed
by President upon an address by both the Houses of the Parliament by as
special majority
4. Three judges of Supreme
Court and High Courts are removed by the President so far.
Which of the above
statements are true?
A.
All
of them B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
99. Consider the
following statements
1. The
Supreme Court of India has squashed section 6A of the DSPE Act is illegal and
stated that it
is violating the equality before
law under article 14
2. Aftermath of this judgment, the CBI
has to take the permission of Union Government to
investigate officers of the rank of
Joint Secretary and above under the Prevention of Corruption
Act
Which of the above
statements are true?
A.
Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
100. When
the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha [CSP 2011]
A.
The
Budget is modified and presented again
B.
The
budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
C.
The
union Finance minister is asked to resign
D.
The
Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers.
******
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