CSP-2015: Indian Polity Test-5 Dt.15.12.2014
Instructions
1. Attempt all 60
questions.
2. All
questions carry equal marks
3. Maximum
marks: 120
4. Time
allowed: As per UPSC rules
5. Negative
marking as per UPSC rules
*****
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Part III of the Constitution of
India dealing with Fundamental Rights is not applicable
to the State of Jammu &
Kashmir.
2. Part IV of the Constitution of
India dealing with Directive Principles is applicable to the
State of Jammu & Kashmir with
some exceptions and conditions.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The constitution of J & K
provides for Governor’s Rule in the state.
2. The
constitution of J & K declares Kashmiri as the official language of the
state
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
3. With
regard to Jammu & Kashmir, Which one of the following statement is correct?
a. The High
Court of J&K can issue writs only for the enforcement of the fundamental
rights and not for any other purpose.
b. The High
Court of J&K can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the
fundamental
rights but also for any other purpose.
c. The High
Court of J&K can issue writs for any purpose except for enforcement of the
Fundamental rights.
d. The High
Court of J&K can issue writs neither for the enforcement of the fundamental
rights nor any other purpose.
4. The J
& K enjoys a special category status under the article 370 and the President
of India has
Power to
declare that Article 370 shall cease to be operative, with two riders. Identify
those riders
from the
options and codes given below.
1. Public notification.
2. Recommendation of Parliament
3. Advice of the Union Council of
Ministers
4. Recommendation of the Constituent
Assembly of J&K
Codes
a.
1 and 4 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 4 d. 1 and 3
5. Consider the following statements;
1. Right to Property is still a
Fundamental Right to the Citizens of one of the States in India.
2.
The powers to make Legislation on the Residual Issues are vested with the
State Assembly of Jammu &
Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
6. Which part of Constitution of India grants a special status to the State
of J&K?
a. Part XX b. Part XXI c. Part XXII d. Part XIX
7. Consider
the following statements.
1.
Provisions of Article 368 cannot be extended to J&K unless it is
extended by an order
of the President.
2. No
alteration of the boundaries of the State without the consent of the Legislature
of the State of J&K.
3. The Union
has power to make a proclamation of financial emergency with respect to the
State of J&K.
According to
the Constitution of India, which of the above statement/s is/are true with
regard to
Jammu &
Kashmir?
a.
Only 1 b. 1 and 2 c. 3 Only d. 1 and 3
8. Consider
the following states.
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Nagaland
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the
above state/s has a more or less true federal relationship with the Union in
India?
a. 1 and 4 b. Only 4 c. 2 and 4 d. 3 and 4
9. Consider the following statements
1. The constitution of Jammu
& Kashmir came into effect on 30th January, 1950
2. Article 370 of the Constitution of India
contains permanent provisions related to the state
of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the above statements are true?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2 c. Both 1
and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Fifth
schedule of the Constitution of India (dealing with administration and control
of scheduled
areas and scheduled tribes) is applicable to the state of Jammu & Kashmir.
2. The Sixth
schedule of the Constitution of India (dealing with administration tribal
areas) is
not applicable to the state of Jammu & Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
11. Which of the following states do not have special status under
article 371 of the Constitution?
a. Sikkim & Assam
b. Mizoram & Manipur
c. Nagaland & Arunachal
Pradesh
d. Tripura & Meghalaya
12. Consider the following pairs
|
Sl.No
|
Article
|
Special provision
|
|
1
|
371
|
Development Boards in the backward regions of
Maharashtra and Gujarat
|
|
2
|
371A
|
Special status for Nagaland
|
|
3
|
371B
|
Committee with elected Tribal members in Assam
Legislative Assembly by President.
|
|
4
|
371C
|
Committee with elected Hill area members in
Manipur Legislative Assembly by President
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4
13. Consider the following pairs
|
Sl.No
|
Article
|
Special provision
|
|
1
|
371D
|
Equal opportunities in education & employment
for people of different parts in AP
|
|
2
|
371E
|
Establishment of Central University in AP
|
|
3
|
371F
|
Fixing of no. of seats in Sikkim Assembly and its
representation Loksabha
|
|
4
|
371G
|
Non-applicability of Union laws unless ratified by
the state assembly of Mizoram on religious and cultural practices of Mizos
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4
14. The President of India is empowered to establish
an Administrative Tribunal (AT) in Andhra Pradesh state to deal with certain
disputes and grievances relating to appointment, allotment or promotion to
civil post in the state. Which of the following are true with regard to this
issue?
1.
Article 371D empowers the President to create an AT in the Andhra Pradesh.
2.
The said Administrative Tribunal was created in 1975
3.
The AT functions outside the jurisdiction of AP High Court and appeal against
this Tribunal
order lies with the Supreme Court of India
4. The president is empowered to cancel the AT if he is
satisfied that its existence is not required.
A) 1, 2 & 4 B) 1 & 4 C)
1,3 & 4 D) All
of the Above
15. Consider the following pairs
|
Sl.No
|
Nature/type of Emergency
|
Effect on FR
|
|
1
|
National emergency due War or external aggression
|
Operation of articles 20 and 21 can’t be suspended
|
|
2
|
National emergency due to armed rebellion
|
Operation of Article 19 can’t be suspended
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
16. Consider the following statements
1. Under Article 250 when
National Emergency is in force, Parliament assumes Concurrent
Legislative Jurisdiction
over all the subjects under the State List.
2. The State Legislative
Assemblies lose the jurisdiction over state subjects during the
currency of National
Emergency.
Which of the above statements are correctly matched?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
17. Consider the following statements
1. If the President is
satisfied that there exist a grave emergency whether due to war or
external aggression or armed
rebellion, then President can proclaim emergency to that effect
2. The satisfaction of President
under Article 352 can’t be challenged in a court of law
Which of the above statements are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
18. In this famous SR Bommai vs. UOI case, the Supreme Court laid down
that the powers vested in the President under Article 356 are not absolute but
are open to judicial review. However the power of Judicial Review related to
Article 356 shall be applicable only certain grounds.
Which of the following is not a ground as suggested by the Supreme Court
in SR Bommai’s case?
a. Whether the proclamation was issued on the basis of any material.
b. Whether the material was relevant.
a. Whether the proclamation was issued on the basis of any material.
b. Whether the material was relevant.
c. Whether the exercise of
power by the President was mala fide.
d. The Governors report
shall be the only source for making the satisfaction of the
President
19. Which of the following is not true with regard to Financial Emergency
under article 360?
a. President is empowered
to suspend the distribution of financial resources with States.
b. The President can issue
directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of
Judges of the Supreme
Court and the High Courts
c. He can direct State
Government to stop salaries allowances of Civil Servants
and other
Constitutional dignitaries.
d. President can direct the
government to resume all the financial and Money Bills passed
by legislature for his
consideration.
20. The Election commission holds election for
a. The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the president and the Vice-
a. The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the president and the Vice-
President
b. The parliament, State
legislative Assemblies and the State Council
c. The Parliament
d. The parliament and the
State Legislative Assemblies
21. In India, political parties are given recognition or
de-recognized by the…
a. Election Commission
b.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
c. President
d. Law Commission
22. Consider the following statements
Government shall be Hindi in Devanagari script
Which of the above statements are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
23. There are 22 recognized languages in the Schedule VIII of the Indian
Constitution. Which of the following language or a combination of languages
contain outside the 22 languages mentioned in the 8th schedule of
the constitution?
a. Telugu, Sindhi, Gondhi
and Santhali
b. Maithili, Dogri, Bodo
and Marathi
c. Sanskrit, Nepali,
Kashmiri and Malayalam
d. Konkani, Kannada,
Marathi and Sindhi
24. Consider the following statements
1. All the four languages of South India [Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and
Malayalam] and
Odiya are recognized as classical languages of India by the Ministry of
Home Affairs
2.
Hindi and Sanskrit are the first languages to be recognized as classical
languages
Which of the above statements are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
25. Which one of the following is NOT a criterion
for recognizing some language as classical language in India?
a. High antiquity of its
early texts/ recorded history of about a period of 1000 years.
b. A body of ancient
literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations
of speakers.
c. The literary tradition is
original and not borrowed from another speech community.
d. The
classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be
a
discontinuity between
the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
26. Consider the following pairs
|
Sl. No.
|
Language
|
Description
|
|
1
|
Sanskrit
|
First language to be recognized as classical language
|
|
2
|
Odiya
|
It is the 6th and last language to be recognized as
classical language.
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
27. Consider the following statements
1.
An
organized group of people,
2.
The common
interests
3.
Exercise
influence on the decisions of the Government.
4.
They are
the part of the Government
Which of the above statements are true with regard to Pressure Groups in
India?
a. 1 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
28. Which of the following is not an objective of Look East Policy of
India?
a. Engagement with the
South East Asian Nations through economic, cultural and strategic
linkages primarily projected through an expanding Indian Navy.
b. Re-work India’s
relations with Asian Powers in South East Asia and East Asia, with an assertive
China being the key concern
c. Link -up the
development modern for the strategically important, economically vulnerable North Eastern region of India.
d. This policy is
started against Maritime Silk Road Initiative of China.
29. Consider the following pairs
|
Sl. No
|
Groupings of the Country
|
Members
|
|
1
|
Nordic Countries
|
Sweden, Norway, Finland, Denmark and Island
|
|
2
|
MINT
|
Malaysia , Indonesia, Nigeria and Turkey
|
|
3
|
Caucasus
|
Russia, Georgia, Azerbaijan and Armenia
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. 1 and
2 b. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None of the above
30. Consider the following pairs
|
Sl. No
|
International organization
|
Purpose
|
|
1
|
“Friends of Fish” group
|
Prohibit harmful subsidies that contribute to overfishing and
overcapacity of fish environment
|
|
2
|
G4 Group
|
Mutual endorsement to get Permanent membership in the reformed UNSC
|
|
3
|
Cairns group
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. 1 and
2 b. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None of the above
31. Consider the following statements
1. The duty of National
Integration Council [NIC] is to looks for ways
to address the
2. It
is a constitutional advisory body
Which of the above statements are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
32.
Communalism in Indian context means:
a. Serving
the community in a befitting manner.
b. Using
communal identity for political gains.
c. A group
of people bound by ethnic feelings.
d. Creating
friendly relations with the other communities.
33. Consider
the following principles.
1. Mutual
respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty.
2. Mutual
protection of the environment
3. Mutual
non-aggression.
4. Mutual
protection of indigenous population
Which of the
above principles are part of Panchasheel, the 5 five principles of peaceful
Coexistence?
a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 1 and 3 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. All of them
34. Which of
the following does not come under the concept of Non-alignment?
a. Foreign aid from the
available sources.
b. Non-involvement in
military formulated in the context of Cold War.
c. Faith in isolationism
d. A demand for a better
deal from the North Countries or South Countries
35. Consider the following
1. Killing of tribals by the
Bodos in Assam
2. Interstate disputes
3. Competition among the
states for inviting investments, growth and development
4. Separate demand for
states
Which of the above are forms of regionalism in India?
a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. None of the above
36. Which
one of the following is the primary purpose of pressure group?
a. To criticize the Government b. To contest the elections
c. To formulate policy d. To bring pressure on
Govt. and influence its decisions
37. A
pressure group is distinct from a political party in as such as it does not
directly.
a. Contest elections b. Finance a candidate
c. Propagate a policy c.
Resort to mobilization of opinion
38. Despite being a Republican State, India is a member of the Common
wealth of nations
Whose head
is the British Monarch. This is b because.
a. This
membership does not affect the sovereign nature of the Indian Republic
b. This
membership only shows that the British ruled over India.
c. Member of the
association is sovereign and independent.
d. It is a symbol of the
unity among the members of the association.
39. The
‘first-past-the-post’ electoral system, prevalent in India, refers to:
a. A system
of proportional representation of weighted voting in a multi-member
Constituency.
b. Single
ballot, plural member majority voting system.
c. An
electoral system in which the person winning the most votes of the voters
casted in a constituency [single ballot,
single member] is declared elected.
d. A system
in which the winning candidate has to secure a plurality as well as majority
of the votes cast.
40. The registration of political parties is done as per the provisions /
decision of:
a. Article 324 of the
Constitution.
b. The representation of
the people Act, 1951
c. The Election
Commission by itself.
d. The
Election Commission in consultation with cabinet committee on political
affairs.
41. Which one of the following functions pertains
only to political party and not to Pressure
Group?
a.
Collecting money for the organization
b.
Contesting political election with own symbol
c.
Organising public meetings and rallies
d.
Publishing pamphlets and leaflets
42. Growth
of regional political parties in India is attributed to which of the following?
1. Diversified nature of Indian
society.
2. Inability to accommodate demands
of various sections of society.
3. Regional imbalances in the
development.
4. Factional fight within the larger
parties.
Select the correct answer from codes given below:
a. 1, 2, 3
and 4 b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 2, 3 and 4
43. The
basic problem in the working of parliamentary system in India arises out of:
a. Lack of a cohesive and viable
party system.
b. The absence of an efficient and
independent bureaucracy.
c. Lack of clear constitutional
provisions
d. Weak political executive on
account of its dependence on the legislature.
44.
Disqualification on the ground of defection for a Member of Parliament will not
apply:
a. If he
goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party.
b. If he has
voluntarily given up his membership of the political party.
c. If he
abstains from voting in the house contrary to the direction of the political
party.
d. If a
nominated member of a House joins a political party after six months.
45. Who/Which of the following decides the question
of disqualification of a member of the
Parliament arising on the ground of defection?
a. President of India b.
Supreme Court
c. Presiding Officer of the
House d. Election Commission
46. What is the main object of protective
discrimination in India?
a. To give
special advantage to a particular group
b. To raise a
disadvantaged group to a level where it can compete with other sections of
society on equal footing.
c. To give
financial assistance to the poor
d. To promote
class interest
47. The
constitutional authority vested with the power of declaring castes or tribes as
the SCs or
STs is the:
a. Parliament
b. Union Home Minister
c. President of
India
d. Chairman, SC/ST Commission
48. Which
one of the following is not a function of the National Commission for Backward
Classes?
a. To
examine requests for inclusion of a class of citizens as a backward class
b. To hear
complaints of under inclusion of any backward class
c. To hear
complaints of over inclusion of any backward class
d. To
identify the creamy layer among the backward classes
49. Under the provisions of the Indian Constitution, a community can be
declared a minority community on the basis of:
a. Religion only b.
Either religion or language
c. Either language or
caste d. Either
religion or race
50. Which of the following organizations/institution is empowered to
accord “backward state status” to any state in India?
a. NITI Aayog
b. Finance Commission
c. National Development Council d. Union Cabinet
51. In India, other than ensuring that public funds
are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the
office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)? [CSP 2012]
1.
CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President
of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2.
CAG reports on the execution of projects or programs by the ministries are
discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3.
Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press
charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4.
While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has
certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b)
2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
52. Consider the following statements;
1.
Cost sharing of the Centre and States @ 90% and 10% respectively in the
Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS)
2.
In the Normal Central Assistance (NCA), the loan and grant portion is 10 and 90
respectively.
3.
Fiscal incentives in the form of tax waivers in direct and indirect taxes.
4.
Incentives on the basis of performance in the social indicators.
Which of the above are the benefits, the special
category states in India are enjoying?
a. 1,
2 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 2, 3 and 4 d.
1, 3 and 4
53. Which of the following is not one of the
criteria for categorizing any state as special category in India?
a.
Hilly and difficult terrain
b.
Strategic location along borders with the neighboring countries
c.
Non-viable nature of state finances
d.
Excellent performance in family planning
54. Gadgil-Mukherjee formula refers to...
a.
It is a formula for estimating the poverty line in India
b.
It is a formula for codifying the human development index parameters
c.
A formula for distributing Central Plan Assistance to the States
d.
None of the above
55. The Finance Commission make recommendations on
the distribution of the tax revenue between the Centre and States and also recommend
measures for giving grants and loans to the states.
In
this regard consider the following criteria;
1.
Population of a state
2.
Area of a state
3.
Fiscal capacity and fiscal discipline
4.
Population below poverty line
5.
Sex ratio in the state
Which of the above criteria is followed by the
Finance Commission for making the recommendations for distribution of tax
revenue and grants.
(a)
1, 2 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c). 1, 2 and 4 (d). 2, 3 and 4
56. Which one/group of the State/s is/are notified
as special category States?
a.
All 7 North-Eastern States and Odisha
b. Himachal
Pradesh, Uttrakhand and Jammu &
Kashmir
c.
All 7 North-Eastern States and Bihar
d.
Andhra Pradesh
57. Consider the following statements with regard to
funds transferred from Centre to States.
1.
Share in the Central Taxes
2.
Central Assistance for State Plans
3.
Centrally Sponsored Schemes
4.
Non-plan grants and loans
Which of the above transfers is a largest one?
a.
1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
58. Which of the following statements is not correct
with regard to Indian Diaspora?
a. Includes
non-resident Indians
b.
It includes persons of Indian Origin, but not their descendants
c. The Central Government has merged Persons
of Indian Origin (PIO) into Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) category.
d.
According to Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs, India has the second largest Diaspora in the World at an estimated
community of 25 million.
59. The
Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing
international treaties. [CSP 2013]
a. With the consent of all the
States.
b. With the consent of the majority
of States.
c. With the consent of the States.
d. Without the consent of any State.
60. With regard to Jammu & Kashmir, which of the following statements
are true?
a. The Centre does not
have power to conclude any treaty on the areas which are falling in the territorial jurisdiction of the
State without the consent of State Legislature
b. The Centre has power
to deal with the Secession and protect the National Integrity and Supremacy
c. The Parliament has a
limited role with regard to Concurrent list of the State
d. All of the above.
*****
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