CSP-2015:India
Polity Test-2 Dt.30.11.2014
Instructions
1. Attempt all 100
questions.
2. All
questions carry equal marks
3. Maximum
marks:200
4. Time
allowed: As per UPSC allows
5. Negative
marking as per UPSC rules
*****
1. Consider the following statements with regard to Centre-State
relations
1. Parliament can alone
make extra-territorial legislation
2. The Treaty making of
the Centre is subject to the approval of the respective state/s
3. The power to make laws
on the residuary subjects rests with the Parliament
Which
of the above statements are true?
a. 1
and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following taxes
1. Income Tax
2. Union Goods and
Services Tax
3. Taxes on capital value
of assets of individuals and companies
4. Surcharge on Income Tax and Fees in
respects of matters in the Union List
5. Corporate tax
6. Tax on interstate transactions
Which of the above taxes, the Union Govt. has to share with the state
Governments?
a. 1 and 6 b. 1, 2 and 6 c. 2, 3, and 5 d. None of them
3. Which article of the constitution
dealt with the Interstate river water disputes?
a. Art.
263 b.
Art.256 c.
Art.262 d. Art. 226
4. Which of the following statements are NOT true with
regard to Zonal Councils?
a. There are 5 zonal councils and one North
Eastern Councils to advice on the matters
of common interest in the respective zones
b. The Union Home
Minister is the Chairman for all the ZC
c. The Union Home Ministers, CMs of the
states in the zone, 2 other Ministers from each
state
& Administrator of each Union territory is the members in ZC.
d. Zonal Councils
are Constitutional bodies.
5. Which of the following Ministry is responsible for Dealing with Centre-State relations,
Inter-State relations, Union
Territories and
re-organization of the states in India?
a. Union
Ministry of Home Affairs
b. Union
Ministry of Finance
c. Union
Ministry of Human Resource Development
d. Union
Ministry of Social Justice& Empowerment
6.
Considering the following statements.
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly.
2. The removal of the Council of
Ministers in the State.
3. Dissolution of the local bodies.
4. Takeover of the State
Administration by the Union Government.
Which of the above are NOT necessarily
the consequences of the proclamation of the
President’s Rule in a State under
article 356?
a.
1,
2 and 4 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 3 and 4
7. The Supreme Court judgment in S.R.
Bommai vs. Union of India has been interpreted to
meaning of the breakdown of the constitutional machinery
at the state. According to the
judgment, in which of following
occasions, the Governor can dismiss a Council of Ministers or
the Chief Minister.
1.
At
his pleasure on his subjective estimate of the strength of the Chief Minister
in the Assembly.
2.
When
the Legislative Assembly has expressed its lack of confidence in the Council of
Ministers.
3.
When
a measure of the Council of Ministers has been defeated on the floor of the
Assembly.
4.
When
a censure motion against the Council of Ministers has been rejected in the
Legislative Assembly.
a.
1
and 2 b. 2 and 3 c.1 and 3 d. 3 and 4
8. Proclamation of Emergency in a
State under Article 356 can continue beyond one year if:
a. The High Court of the State
certifies that the situation in the State is very serious.
b. The Governor of the State certifies
that the law and order situation is not under control
c. The Election Commission certifies
that it is difficult to hold elections to the
Assembly.
d. The President is satisfied about
the grave situation in the State through independent
investigation.
9. When a state fails to implement the
administrative directions given by the Union under Article
256 of the Constitution of India.
a.
Parliament may compel the state to execute the said directions.
b.
The Governor may dissolve the State Legislature.
c. The President may presume that
Constitutional machinery in the state has been
failed.
d. The President may impose emergency
under Article 352 of the Constitution.
10. Which of the following statements is true with regard to
the “assembly dissolved” by the President under the article 356?
a. Fresh elections have to conducted for
the assembly
b. No possibility to form a new
Government from such assembly
c. All the legislators lose their
position as MLA
d. All of the above
11. “The Raghuram Rajan committee” appointed by the Union
Government to decide the fresh criteria for granting special category status to
states has classified states into different categories based on “Multi-Dimensional
Index” [MDI]. Which one of the following is not such a category?
a. Well-developed b. Less-developed c.
Least-developed d. Relatively-developed
12. Which schedule of the constitution, deals with the sharing of
Legislative, administrative and economic powers between in Centre and states?
a. Schedule 8 b. Schedule 9 c. Schedule 6 d. Schedule 7
13. Under the constitution which constitutional body has power to create
common High Court for more than one state?
a. President b. Supreme Court
c. Parliament d. President on
the resolution of respective states
14. Who has powers to make Laws/Legislation on the subjects of state
which is under president’s rule?
a. President or a person
authorized by him
b. Parliament
c. Governor
d. None of them
15. Under which of the circumstances, the Centre can take over the
executive powers of the state without dissolving the state Governments?
a. When state government
fails to control the communal disturbances
b. When law and order
fails in the state
c. When emergency under
article 352 is clamped
d. In none of the
occasions
16. In case of a dispute whether an issue is an item of “Con-current
list” or not, what is the final authority to decide the issue?
a. Supreme Court b. Parliament c. President d. Governor
17. The executive power on the issues enumerated in the Con-current list
generally lies with which of the following bodies?
a. States b. Union Government c. President d. None of them
18. Which of the statements are NOT true with regard to appointment and
control of officers of 3 All India Services [AIS]?
a. They are appointed by
the President, but removed by the Governor
b. They occupy and work
in crucial areas of state administration
c. They are paid salaries
and allowances as per the rules of the Central Government
d. All the statements are
correct
19. Consider the
following revenues of the Centre.
1. Auction proceeds of spectrum and
coal allocations
2. Corporate tax
3. Customs duties
4. Income tax
5. Proceeds of disinvestment
Which of the above revenues
of the Central Government is part of the sharable taxes with the state
governments at present?
a. Only 4 b. 3 and 4 c. 1, 4 and 5 d. All of them
20. Which of the
following taxes is NOT part of the proposed GST by the Central Government?
a. Customs duty b. Excise duty
c. Corporate tax
d.
Sales tax
21. Which of the
following is the single biggest direct tax in India?
a. Customs duties b.
Excise duties
c. Income Tax
d. Corporation tax
22. Consider the
following taxes
1. Sales tax on sale of
goods within territorial jurisdiction of a state
5. Capital
gains tax on the sale of immovable or capital assets such as land or building
Which of the above taxes are in the domain of State
Government?
a.
All of them b. 1, 2, 3 and 5 c. 1, 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
23. Consider the following
pairs non-tax
revenue items
|
|
Item of non-tax revenue
|
To whom they belong to
|
|
1
|
Income from the Forests including
sale of red sandal wood logs
|
Both Centre and States
|
|
2
|
Irrigation tax
|
States
|
|
3
|
Taxes
on goods and passengers carried by roads or on inland waterways
|
Centre
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a.
Only
1 b. Only 2 c. 1 and 3 only d. None of them
24.
Consider the followings statements
1. The Constitution authorizes both
Centre and states to obtain loans on their own from
Foreign countries/sources
2. The states has no power to obtain
foreign loans under the constitution of India, unless
authorized /facilitated by the
Central Government.
Which of
the above statements are true?
a.
Only
1 b. only 2 c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
25.
Consider the following statements
1. Making Constitutional amendment for
including corporate tax into the divisional pool of
taxes between Centre and States
2. Abolition of All India services
3. Establishment of Interstate council
and establishment of River Water Dispute Tribunals
and their award is equal to the
judgment of Supreme Court
Which of
the above were the recommendations of Sarkaria Commission [Set up 1983, report
submitted in 1987] which is a land mark in the Federal structure of India?
a.
1 and
2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3
26. Consider
the following statements
1. Political instability and or Failure
of the constitutional machinery at the state
2. Internal rebellion
3. Not following the directions given by
the Centre
4. When state Government demands more
funds or differs with the opinion of PM
In which
of the above situations only, the section 356 to be used to dismiss the state
government, as per the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission in 1987?
a. 1 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 3 and 4
27. Which
of the following states are not involved in the dispute with regard to sharing
of Godavari river waters?
a. Madhya Pradesh b.
Maharashtra
c. Andhra Pradesh d. Karnataka
28. Consider the following states/UTs
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Karnataka
3. Kerala
4. Puduchchery
Which of
the above parties are disputants in sharing the river water of Cauvery?
a.
1, 2 and
3 only b. All of the above c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 1 and 2 only
29. Consider the following pairs
|
|
Issues
|
List
|
|
1
|
Industry and Commerce
|
State List
|
|
2
|
Labour welfare and Economic and
special Planning
|
Union List
|
|
3
|
Prisons and Agriculture
|
Concurrent List
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a.
Only
1 b. Only 2 c. 1 and 3 only d. None of them
30. Colorable
legislation means….
a. A law which is passed by Parliament
on the religious affairs in India
b. A law made by the slate legislature
restricting the trade of an another state
c. A law made by one Legislative body
beyond its legislative competence with an
intention to transgress into the
legislative domain of another body.
d. A law made by one Legislative body
beyond its legislative competence without an
intention to transgress into the
legislative domain of another body.
31. Consider the following pairs
|
|
Issues
|
List
|
|
1
|
Forests
|
State List
|
|
2
|
Health, Hospitals and Sanitation
|
Union List
|
|
3
|
Concurrent List
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a.
Only
1 b. Only 2 c. 1 and 3 only d. None of them
32. Which of the following statements are true with
regard to All India Services?
1.
The existing three All India Services came
into existence by replacing their pre-independent counter parts.
2.
All India services are jointly controlled by
Centre and States.
3.
All India Services violate the principle of
federalism.
4.
They are intended to maintain high standards
of administration and uniformity of administrative system and to facilitate
liasoning, co-operation, coordination and joint action on common issues of
interest between State and Centre.
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 1, 2
and 3 c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4
33.
See the following statements:
1.
A Chairman and Members of the State Public
Service Commission and Election Commission are appointed by the Governor.
2.
The above mentioned constitutional authorities
are removed by the President.
Which
of the above statement is/are not correct?
a. 1
only b.
2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither a nor b.
34.
Which of the following group of countries is/are not a Federation?
a)
Britain and France b)
United States and Switzerland
c)
Australia and Canada d)
Russia and Brazil
35. By
way of its formation, preference to the term union and centralizing tendency,
which of the
following federations, the Indian federal
system ha resemblance?
a. United States b. Switzerland c. Canada d. Australia
36.
Which of the following is a not feature of Federation?
a. Written and Supremacy of the Constitution
b. Rigid Constitution
c. Independent Judiciary.
d. Unequal representation of states
in Rajya Sabha.
37. Which of the
following federal principles are not found in Indian federation?
1. Bifurcation of the judiciary between the
Federal and State Governments
2. Equality of representation of the states
in the upper house of the Federal Legislature.
3. The inherent right of the units to secede
from the Federation.
4. Federal Government can redraw the map of
the Indian Union by forming new states.
Select the correct
answer from codes given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1 and 2 d. 3 and 4
38. The Constitution of
India is federal in character because:
a. The Head
of the State (the President) is elected by an electoral college consisting of
the elected members of both the Houses of
Parliament and the elected members of
the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
b. The
Governors of States are appointed by the President and they hold office during
the pleasure of the President.
c.
There is distribution of powers between the Union and the States.
d. The procedure for amendment to the
Constitution in India
39. Consider the following
pairs
|
|
Issues
|
List
|
|
1
|
Cabinet form of Government
|
Collective responsibility
|
|
2
|
Federal Government
|
Concentration of powers
|
|
3
|
Unitary Government
|
Division of powers
|
|
4
|
Presidential Form of Government
|
Separation of powers [between
Executive and Legislature]
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a.
2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 only d. 1and 4
40. Consider the
following statements about Union-State relations:
1. In case of overlapping of a matter
between the three kinds of subjects of legislations,
predominance has been given to the Union Legislation.
2. In the concurrent sphere, in the
case of repugnancy between a Union and a State law
relating to the same subject, the former prevails, even if the State law
reserved for the
assent of the President and has received such assent.
3. The vesting of residual power under
the Indian Constitution follows the precedent of
Canada and not that of the Government of India Act, 1935.
Which of the statements
given above is / are correct?
a.
2 and
3 b. 1 and
2 c. 1 and 3
only d. 1and 4
41.
Consider the following statements:
1) With the consent of the Government of
India, the Governor of a State may entrust on the Union Government or to its officers
functions relating to a State subject, to which executive power of that State
extends.
2) The President of India cannot entrust
to any State Government or to its officers, functions in relation to any matter
to which the executive power of the Union extends.
3) There is a provision in the
Constitution of India to create the National Integration Council.
Which of the statements
given above is / are correct?
a.
Only
1 b. 1 and
2 c. 1 and 3
only d. 2 and 3
42. Consider the following
pairs
|
|
Source
of Legislation
|
Taxes
|
|
1
|
Taxes levied by the Union but collected
and appropriated by the States
|
Stamp duties
|
|
2
|
Taxes levied, collected and retained
by the states
|
Taxes on lands and buildings
|
|
3
|
Taxes levied and collected by the
Centre but assigned to the States
|
Taxes on consignment of goods in the
course of inter-state trade
|
|
4
|
Taxes levied and collected by the
Centre and distributed between the Union and the States
|
Taxes on income other than
agriculture
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a.
2 and
3 b. 1 and
2 c. 1 and 3
only d. 1, 2,3 and 4
43. If any directions are issued by
the Union Government to a State and they have not been
complied with, then which one of the
following statements is correct?
a.
It
shall be presumed that the constitutional machinery in the State had failed as
per Article 365 of the Constitution.
b.
It
shall be presumed that the State had law and order problem and action under
Article 365 is required.
c.
The
Union Government can appoint advisers to help the Governor for performing his
functions.
d.
The
Parliament may make laws for that State
44.
Consider the following taxes
1.
Taxes on mineral rights.
2.
Taxes on entry of goods into a local area
3.
Taxes on agricultural income
4.
Taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments
Which
of the following taxes are levied and collected and retained by the States?
a.
1, 2 and
3 b. 1, 3
and 4 c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2,3 and 4
45. Consider the following
pairs
|
|
Issues
|
Meaning
|
|
1
|
Surcharge
|
Charge
on any tax, charged on the tax already paid
|
|
2
|
Cess
|
Levied for a specific purpose,
charged on the total income/service
|
|
3
|
Duty
|
on-border tax charged on goods or
commodities while receipt into the country/system or tax on properties on
ownership or at the time of succession
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a.
1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1,
2 and 3 d. 1 and 3 only
46. Consider the following
pairs
|
|
Source
of Legislation
|
Taxes
|
|
1
|
Tax levied by the Union of India and
assigned to the Centre
|
Surcharge
|
|
2
|
Tax levied by the Union of India but
assigned to the States
|
Taxes on goods of inter-state trade
|
|
3
|
Tax levied by the State and assigned
to the State
|
Land Revenue
|
|
4
|
Tax levied by the Union of India
and distributed between the Union and
the States
|
Income tax, other than tax on
agricultural income
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a.
2 and
3 b. 1 and
2 c. 1 and 3
only d. 1, 2,3 and 4
47. Consider the following
statements
1. During the currency of
President’s rule under article 356, the Parliament is empowered to
make laws on the state
subjects
2. A law so made by the Parliament ceases
to operate once President Rule is lifted
Which of the above
statement/s is/ are true?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only c. 1
& 2 d. Neither 1
Nor 2
48. The Constitution has provided for certain
circumstances or issues on which Centre is empowered issue directions to the
states. In this connection, which of the direction is not mentioned in the
constitution?
a. Drawing and execution of schemes for
the welfare of STs in the State
b. Creation of facilities for instruction in the Mother Tongue to all the
persons in the
state
c. Construction & maintenance of
means of communication of national importance
d. Measures to be taken for protecting
Railways within the State.
49. Consider the following
committees/Commissions
1. Administrative Reform Commission
[ARC]
2. Rajamannar committee [1969]
3. Anandpur Sahib Resolution [1973]
4. B. Sarkaria Commission [1983]
5. Punchhi Commission [2007]
Which of the above
committees/Commissions are made recommendations or related to Centre-state
relations?
a. 1, 2
and 3 only b. All of the above
c. 2, 3, 4 and 5 d. 1,
2, 3 and 4
50. Consider the
following statements:
1)
Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other
court shall exercise
jurisdiction in respect of any dispute with respect to the use,
distribution or control of the
waters of any Inter-State river or river valley.
2) River Boards Act. 1956, provides
for reference of an Inter-State river dispute for
arbitration by a Water dispute tribunal.
Which of the statements given above is
/ are correct?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
51. The Chairman of
Zonal Council is:
a. The Chief Minister and is nominated by the Prime
Minister of India.
b. The Union Minister and is nominated by the President
of India.
c. The Home
Minister and is ex-officio.
d. The Vice-President of India.
52. Consider the following statements
1. They owe their existence to the
Constitution of India.
2. There are five Zonal councils
3. The coordinate relations among
the governments of the States and Union territories
and the Govt. of India.
4. They are set up under the States
Reorganization Act. 1956.
Which of the above statements are true
with regard to Zonal councils?
a.
All
of them b.1, 2 and 3 c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 2 and 4
53. Consider the following taxes
1.
Property
tax
2.
Octroi
3.
Sales
tax
4.
Animal
tax
Which of the following are
the sources of revenue of Urban Local Bodies?
a. 1 and 2 b.2, 3 and 4
c. 1,3 and 4 d. 1,2 and 4
54. Under the
Constitution of India, the power to extend functions of the Union Public
Service Commission has been vested in the:
a. President of India b. Parliament c. Chairman of the UPSC d. DOPT
55. Who among the following is a
Constitutional authority for whose removal from office by the
President a reference to the Supreme
Court is necessary?
a. Chairman of the Union Public
Service Commission.
b. Judge of the Supreme Court.
c. Comptroller and Auditor-General of
India.
d. Chief Election Commissioner
56. Part XIV-A of the Constitution of
India deals with which of the following:
1. Administrative
Tribunals
2. Adjudication or trial by tribunals in respect of
enforcement of any tax
3. Adjudication or trial by tribunals in respect of
ceiling on urban property
4. Adjudication or trial by tribunals in respect of
industrial and labour disputes
Select the correct answer from codes
given below:
a.
1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 1, 2 and
3 c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
57. The Central Administrative
Tribunal adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the
Service of persons who are:
a.
Appointed
to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union except
members of the Defence services.
b. Official and servants of the
Supreme Court or High Court.
c. Members of the Secretarial staff of
the Parliament or State Legislatures.
d. Members of the Defence services.
58.
Which one of the following is a Quasi-judicial authority?
a. Central Vigilance Commission b. National Commission
for Women
c. CAG d. Central
Administrative Tribunal [CAT]
59.
The Chairman of a State Administrative Tribunal is appointed by the:
a. Chief Justice of India b. Chief Justice of
the State High Court
c. Governor of State d. President of India
60. The Department of Revenue has transferred one of his officers
before he has completed his tenure in a particular place. As per the transfer rules
and policy, the officer can stay in a zone for 8 years. What is the remedy for
the officer?
a. No remedy as there is
no choice of the officer as such in the Government
b. He may refuse to join
the new place as the order is arbitrary
c. He can approach the CAT for quashing the order of the Department of
Revenue
d. He can approach
Income Tax ombudsman for redressal of his grievance
61. Consider the following
pairs
|
|
Regulatory body
|
Sector or area controlled
and regulated
|
|
1
|
Registrar of Companies [ROC]
|
Regulator for
company- related matters
|
|
2
|
Securities and Exchange Board of
India [SEBI]
|
Regulator of Money markets and money
market instruments
|
|
3
|
Biodiversity Authority of India
|
Control of pollution in biospheres
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a.
Only 1 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3 only
62. What is the duty of Banking Ombudsman….
a. Resolution of
complaints of banking customers relating to certain banking
services.
b. Resolution of
complaints of banking employees on their agitation for pay hike and
against privatization
of PSU banks
c. To deal with the NPAs
d. None of the above
63. Which of the following is not the duty of National Green Tribunal
[NGT]?
a. Effective
and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and
Conservation of forests and other natural resources
b. To provide judicial and administrative remedies for the
victims of the pollutants and
other
environmental damage
c. To uphold
the principle of “the polluter pays” and sustainable development
d. To advice
the Government on the methods of conservation of Nature and Natural
resources
64. Consider the following
pairs
|
|
Quasi-judicial
body
|
Jurisdiction
|
|
1
|
Income
Tax Appellate Tribunal
|
Disputes in Direct taxes
|
|
2
|
Competition Commission of India
[CCI]
|
|
|
3
|
Intellectual
Property Appellate Tribunal
|
Trade Marks Act, 1999 and
Geographical Indications of Goods [Registration and Protection] Act, 1999
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a.
Only 1 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3 only
65. Consider the following statements
1. The quasi-judicial
bodies have certain judicial powers of taking action for indiscipline,
conduct rules,
getting and obtaining statements of
persons under oath, etc.
2. They are generally the
highest fact finding bodies
Which of the above statements are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
66. Consider the following pairs
|
|
Quasi-judicial
body
|
Ministry
|
|
1
|
Income
Tax Appellate Tribunal [ITAT]
|
Ministry of Law & Justice
|
|
2
|
Securities
Appellate Tribunal [SAT]
|
Ministry of Finance
|
|
3
|
Intellectual
Property Appellate Tribunal [IPAT]
|
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a.
Only 1 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3 only
67. Which
of the following statements are true about SEBI?
a. It is quasi-legislative; it drafts
regulations to the players of capital markets
b. It is quasi-executive; it conducts
investigation and enforcement action
c. It is quasi-judicial; it passes
rulings and orders in its judicial capacity
d. All of the above
68. Consider
the following statements
1. The Local Bodies derive the
taxation powers from the Constitution
2. The State Governments are endowed
with the power to empower the Local bodies with
the taxation powers
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
69. Consider the following pairs
|
|
River
|
Disputant
states
|
|
1
|
Mahadayi
or Mandovi
|
Karnataka and Goa
|
|
2
|
Vamshadara
|
Jharkhand and Odisha
|
|
3
|
Palar
|
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
|
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a.
Only 1 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3 only
70. Which
one of the following is not a constitutional body?
a. Central Pollution Control Board [CPCB]
b.
National Commission for Scheduled castes
c.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
d.
Securities Appellate Tribunal [SAT]
*****
No comments:
Post a Comment