B. Yadagiri IRS: CSP 2015 Indian Polity and Governance Test 1 dt. 15.10.2014

CSP-2015:India Polity Test-1 Dt.15.10.2014

Instructions

1. Attempt all 100 questions.

2. All questions carry equal marks

3. Maximum marks:200

4. Time allowed: As per UPSC allows

5. Negative marking as per UPSC rules

*****

1. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India: [CSP 2012]

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code

2. Organization village Panchayats

3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas

4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(A) 1, 2 and 4 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2. Which of the following is not included in Article 19 of the Constitution of India, pertaining to the

Right to Freedom?

(A) Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.

(B) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

(D) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.

3. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy [2013 CSP]

2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies

3. Fifth Schedule

4. Sixth Schedule

5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 3, 4 and 5 only

(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

4. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? [2012 CSP]

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice

3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry

4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

5. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following? [2011 CSP]
      1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
      2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
      3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only          (B) 1 and 2 only        (C) 2 and 3 only        D) 1, 2 and 3

6. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

(A) To vote in public elections [2011 CSP]

(B) To develop the scientific temper
(C) To safeguard public property
(D) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

7. Consider the following: [2011 CSP]

    1. Right to education.
    2. Right to equal access to public service.
    3. Right to food.
Which of the above is/ are Human Right/Human Rights under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights"?

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

8. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following: [2010 CSP]

1. Fundamental Rights

2. Fundamental Duties

3. Directive Principles of State Policy

Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?

A. 1 only B. 3 only C.1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

9. The "Instrument of Instructions" contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as [2010 CSP]

A. Fundamental Rights B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. Extent of executive power of State D. Conduct of business of the Government of India

10. Which of the following has been described by Dr.Ambedkar as “heart, soul and ornament of the Constitution” of India?

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. Preamble

D. Fundamental Duties

11. Consider the following states.

1. Andhra Pradesh 3. Telangana

2. Maharashtra 4. Jharkhand

What is the correct chronological order in which the above states of the Indian Union were

created or granted full statehood?

A.2-1-4-3 B.2-1-3-4 C.1-2-4-3 D. 1-2-3-4

12. Consider the following statements

1. The Supreme Court can issue writs other than the five mentioned in the article 32

2. The Writ of Mandamus is available against the Administrative Tribunals

3. Legislative powers to enact laws on preventive detention is divided between the
Union and the states

4. Conservation of Foreign exchange and Prevention of smuggling activities, 1974 is a

Preventive Detention Law.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1,2 B. 2,4 C. 1,2,3 D. 1,2,3,4

13. Which of the following is true with regard to Article 31C?

1) The socialistic directive principles specified in Article 39 (b) and (c) override the FR

conferred under Article 14 and 19.

2) The supremacy of 39 (b) and (c) over rights conferred u/a 14 and 19 was upheld by

the Supreme Court of India in the case of Kesavananda Bharathi case vs state of

Kerala (1973)

A. Only 1 B) only 2 C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Writ)		List II (Given against)
A	Habeas Corpus	1	Generally against Public body or against inferior court/tribunal
B	Mandamus	2	Judicial and quasi-judicial authorities only
C	Quo-warranto	3	Public & private authorities and private individuals
D	Prohibition	4	Judicial and quasi-judicial authorities plus administrative authorities
E	Certiorari	5	Only against substantial public office created by the Statute or Constitution

Codes:

A B C D E

(A) 3 2 4 5 1

(B) 3 1 5 2 4

(D) 5 2 3 4 1

15. Which of the following writs is not specifically provided in the constitution? (2007 CSP)

(A) Prohibition (B) Mandamus (C) Quo-warranto (D) Injunction

16. Which articles are often called the Golden Triangle in the Indian Constitution? (2007 CSP)

(a) Article 14, 15 and 19

(b) Article 14, 15 and 16

(d) Article 14, 19 and 21

17. Consider the following statements

1. The Constitution has imposed certain restrictions on the enjoyment of FR

2. The Parliament has power to impose certain more limitations on enjoyment of FR

3. President of Indian can suspend certain FR temporarily during emergency

4. The Parliament can make some ordinary rights as FR

Which of the above points illustrate that Fundamental Rights in Indian are not absolute rights?

A. 1 & 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 3

18. Which of the following Statements are true with regard to the Fundamental Rights of the minorities in educational matters?

1. The minorities have right to administer the general educational institutions u/a 29 and 30.

2. The minorities have right to establish and administer the educational institutions

3. The right is absolute and not subject to any restriction

4. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed to promote efficiency and prevent mal-

administration on minority institutions

Select the correct answers from the options given below.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4

19. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

	List I (Issue )		List II ( Date)
A	First meeting of Constituent Assembly	1	Dec. 9, 1946
B	Acceptance of National Tricolor Constituent Assembly	2	July 22, 1947
C	Acceptance of constitution	3	Nov. 26, 1947
D	Acceptance of “Janaganamana…” as National Anthem by Constituent Assembly	4	Jan. 24, 1950

Codes:

A B C D

A. 4 2 3 1

B. 2 3 4 1

C. 1 2 3 4

D. 1 2 4 3

20. The philosophical postulates of the Constitution of India are based on:

(a) Nehru Report, 1928.

(b) Objectives Resolution of Pandit Nehru, 1947.

(d) Indian National Congress’s Resolution for Complete Independence, 1929.

21. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is:

A. Not a part of the Constitution.

B. A part of the Constitution but it neither confers any powers nor imposes any duties nor

can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution.

C. A part of the Constitution and has been used in interpreting other provisions of the

Constitution in cases of ambiguity by the Courts.

D. A part of the Constitution and confers powers and imposes duties as, any other provision

of the Constitution.

22. The term “economic justice” in the Preamble to the Constitution of India, is a resolution for

A. Equitable distribution of wealth. B. Economy in the administration of justice.

C. Socio-economic revolution. D. Cheap justice to the poor.

23. Consider the following statements.

1) Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries of any existing State of India.

2) A bill pertaining to the alteration of the boundaries of any existing State of India has to

be introduced in the Rajya Sabha and only on the recommendation of the President of

India.

Which one of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

24. The states of the Indian Union can be reorganized or their boundaries altered by:

A. Parliament by a simple majority in the ordinary process of Legislation.

B. Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament.

C. Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament and the consent of the legislature of

the concerned States,

D. An executive order of the Union Government with the consent of the concerned State

Government.

25. Consider the following statements with reference to the linguistic reorganization of states in independent India:

1) Separate state of Andhra for the Telugu people came into existence in 1953.

2) Jawaharlal Nehru was particularly in favour of movement for linguistic reorganization of

states that came in the wake of the success of the Andhra movement.

Which one of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

26. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways can a person becomes a

Citizen of India?

1. By birth 2. By descent

3. By registration 4. By nationalization

5. By incorporation of territory

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1,2,3,4 and 5 B. 1 and 2

C. 1,2,3 and 5 D. 3,4 and 5

27. Which one among the following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India?

(A) The Union Cabinet (B) The Parliament

28. According to the Citizenship Act 1955, by which of the following ways can a person lose citizenship of India?

1. By Renunciation

2. By Termination

3. By Deprivation

4. By death

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1 and 3

29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Writ)		List II (Ground)
A	Habeas Corpus	1	Non-performance of public duties
B	Mandamus	2	Unlawful detention
C	Quo-warranto	3	Correctional directions to subordinate courts
D	Prohibition	4	Unlawful occupation of public office
E	Certiorari	5	Preventive directions to the subordinate courts

Codes:

A B C D E

A. 2 1 4 3 5

B. 2 1 4 5 3

C. 1 4 2 3 5

D. 5 2 3 4 1

30. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A	Article 15	Special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes
B	Article 22	Safeguards under preventive detention
C	Article 20	Immunity from double punishment
D	Article 16	Discrimination in favour of women in service under the State

31. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Provisions)		List II (Contained in)
A	Liberty of thought and expression	1	Right to freedom
B	Freedom of speech and expression	2	Cultural & educational rights
C	Making special provisions for women & children	3	Preamble
D	Protection of interest of Minorities	4	Protection of life and liberty
		5	Right to equality

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 5 2

(b) 2 5 4 1

(d) 2 4 5 1

32. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Preamble has been sourced from erstwhile USSR Constitution

B. It is not a part of the Constitution

C. It is justiceable

D. Preamble helps the Courts in interpretation of Constitution

33. The definition of “State” in article 12 doesn’t include the following

A) The Executive organs of Union and State governments

B) The Legislative organs of Union and State governments

C) The Judiciary.

D) All the Local bodies, including Gram Panchats and Nagara Palikas

E) All authorities-Statutary/non-statutary authorities like ONGC, LIC, BSNL etc.,

34. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. Ambedkar as “heart and soul” of the

Fundamental Rights? [Don’t confuse with similar statement of him on Preamble]

A. Right to equality B. Right against exploitation

C. Right to constitutional remedies D. Right to freedom of religion

35. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (cases)		List II ( Related to)
A	Indra Sawhney case	1	Power of Parliament to amend Part III of the Constitution upheld
B	A. Minerva Mills case	2	Procedure established by law
C	B. Gopalan case	3	Reservation for Backward Classes
D	Shankari Prasad case	4	Revival of Judicial Review

Codes :

A B C D

A. 3 1 2 4

B. 2 4 3 1

C. 3 4 2 1

D. 2 1 3 4

36. The Supreme Court has struck down the 1994 Karnataka state Govt.’s direction to make

Kannada as a compulsory medium of instruction to the classes I to IV on the ground that it

violate “freedom of speech and expression” of the parents and students and also affect the right

of the minority and private unaided schools to carry on their occupation. By its directions, which

of the following articles are violated by the Karnataka Govt. as per the Supreme Court ruling?

A. Article 19(1)(a) B. Article 19(1)(g) C. Both of them D. None of them

37. The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights.

Which one of the following shall not be construed as law for this purpose?

(A) Ordinance (B) Bye-law

38. The preamble reflects the ideas and ideals of the framers of the Constitution. Which of the following items are reflected in the preamble?

A. The objectives of Political systems in India

B. Source of the Political power

C. Nature and character of the Govt.

D. All of the above

39. What is the exact meaning of the term “Double Jeopardy” implied in Article 20 of the

Constitution of India, a person:

A. Convicted by a Court of law cannot be punished under departmental proceedings for the

same offence.

B. Punished departmentally cannot be prosecuted in a court of law for the same offence.

C. Shall not be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.

D. Cannot be subjected to proceedings in civil courts for disobedience of an injunction along

with criminal proceedings.

40. Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favor of scheduled castes and scheduled

Tribes are governed by:

(A) Article 15 of the Constitution (B) Article 16 of the Constitution

41. If an Indian citizen acquires citizenship of some other country

A. He will become green card holder

B. He will become eligible for obtaining “dual citizenship”

C. He will lose Indian citizenship automatically

D. None of the above

42. Which of the following are true with regard to ex-post-facto law which is enshrined in the article 20 of the Constitution?

1. Retrospective laws can be made both for civil and criminal proceedings

2. Parliament has a power to make the tax laws applicable retrospectively

A. Only 2 B. only 1 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

43. Which of the following are correct with regard to “Injunction”?

A. It is a writ issued by Courts to stop certain work done against the plaintiff (complainant)

B. An injunction is a court order that requires a party to do or refrain from doing specific acts.

C. It is a direction issued against Government and Government Institutions always

D. None of the above

44. Which of the following Constitutional/Government persons don’t enjoy immunity from the

operation of Article 14 [Equality of Law and Equal Protection of Laws]?

A. Prime Minister B. Ambassadors/High commissioners C. Governor D. President

45. Right to life emanates from:

(a) Article 21 and includes right to die

(b) Article 19 and does not include right to die

(d) Article 21 and does not include right to die.

46. Which of the following has inspired framers of the Indian constitution to adopt the words,

Equality, Freedom and Fraternity?

A. French Revolution B. Russian Revolution C. UN charter D. Chinese Revolution

47. For which of the following can special provisions be made under Article 15 of the

Constitution of India?

(1) Women and children (2) Scheduled castes and Tribes

(3) Economically backward classes (4) Socially backward classes

(5) Educationally backward classes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 B. 1, 3 and 5 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

48. Who is the Indian freedom fighter who first time indicated the idea of having a Constitution?

A. Dr. Ambedkar B. Motilal Nehru C. Jawaharlal Nehru D. MK Gandhi

49. Which of the following is true with regard to Indian citizenship?

A. An Indian who stays outside India continuously for 730 days loses Indian citizenship

B. PIOs and OCI card holders can contest for constitutional posts in India

C. The foreigners who has obtained Indian citizenship as per law can occupy any constitutional post in India

D. None of the above

50. The term ‘equal pay for equal work’ is a:

A. Directive principles of State Policy B. Fundamental Right

C. Fundamental duty D. Constitutional Right

51. Which of the following statements is / are correct?

(a) 42^nd Amendment to the constitution of India gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.

(b) Minerva Mills case rules that there has to be a balance between Part III and Part IV of the constitution.

(c) National Commission for Review of the working of the constitution has recommended that Directive Principles be made justiceable.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

52. Which of the following statements regarding the current status of the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is correct?

(a) Directive Principles cannot get priority over Fundamental Rights in any case.

(b) Directive Principles always get priority over Fundamental Rights

(d) In some cases Directive Principles may get priority over Fundamental Rights.

53. Consider the following Preventive Detention Acts.

1. Conservation of Foreign exchange and prevention of smuggling Activities Act, 1974

[COFEPOSA, Act 1974]

2. Prevention of Terrorism Act [POTA]

3. National Securities Act [NASA], 1980

4. Unlawful Activities [Prevention Act], 1967 as amended in 2008

Which of the above Acts are under operation today?

A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1 and 2 only

54. Which of the following statements are NOT true with regard to Non-Resident Indians?

A. They are Indian citizens, holding Indian passport

B. Their stay outside India is more than 182 days or more than 6 months

C. They have right to vote and occupy any constitutional post after their return to India

D. They can’t acquire agricultural and plantation properties

55. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Schedule )		List II ( Subject)
A	II Schedule	1	Rural Local Body Governments
B	IV Schedule	2	Languages
C	VIII Schedule	3	Allocation seats in Rajya Sabha among the states
D	XI Schedule	4	Salaries of President, SC and HC judges, CAG etc.

Codes :

A B C D

A. 4 3 2 1

B. 4 3 1 2

C. 3 4 2 1

D. 2 1 3 4

56. There are certain exceptions to this general rule of equality of opportunity in public employment u/a 16 of the constitution. Which of the following is NOT such an exception?

A. Parliament can prescribe residence as a condition for employment in a state or UT or

Local authority.

B. The State can provide for reservations of appointments or posts in favor of backward

classes which are not adequately represented in the state services

C. In religious institutions, condition of employment can be restricted to the persons belonging to said religious group.

D. All are exceptions to article 16

57. Which of the following are correct with regard to movement and residence of the citizens

1) The movement and residence of citizens can be restricted in the interest of public and protection of interests of Scheduled Tribes

2) The entry of outsiders in tribal areas is restricted to protect the distinctive language, customs and manners and to safe-guard their traditional vocation and properties against exploitation.

A. Only 1 B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

58. Consider the following statements

1) The Supreme Court issue writ u/a 32 and the High Court/s u/a 226

2) The writ issuing power of the High court/s is wider than that of Supreme Court

3) The writ jurisdiction of HCs is not confined to their territorial jurisdiction.

4) Article 32 imposes writ issuing duty to SC where as no such imposition on HCs

Which of the above statement is false?

A. Only 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 only D. 3 and 4

59) Which of the following are correct with regard to linguistic re-orgnisation of states

1) S.K. Dhar & JVP committee had rejected the language as a basis for creating new states

2) Fazl Ali commission has broadly accepted language as a basis for re-organisation of

states

3) Jawahar Lal Nehru was not interested to organize states on linguistic basis

4) Andhra Pradesh is the first state to be formed on linguistic basis

A) All are correct B) 2 and 3 C) 1 and 2 D) 1 and 3

60. The feature of GOI Act, 1858 include

1. Taking over of Indian administration by British Crown

2. Establishment of “Board of Control” over the “Court of Directors”

3. Reaffirmation of system of open competition for Govt. jobs

4. Separation of Legislative and Executive functions of the Governor-General

5. Creation of a new office of “Secretary of State” for India

A. 1, 3 and 5 B. 1, 2 and 5 C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 D. All of them

61. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Case law	Ratio of the Judgment(SC)
a) Berubari Union case (1960) b) Kesavananda Bharathi vs Kerala state(1973) c) LIC of India case(1995)	1) preamble is the integral to the constitution 2) Preamble is not a part of the constitution 3) Preamble is a part of the Constitution & it can be amended, except the basic structure of the constitution.

Codes:

A B C

(a) 2 1 3

(b) 3 2 1

(d) 2 3 1

62. Which of the following are correct with regard to states and Union Territories (UTs) in India.

1) There are 29 states and 7 UTs in India

2) Out of the 7 UTs, only two have Assemblies

3) The latest reorganization of states was done in 2014 where a separate state of

Telangana was created from erstwhile Andhra Pradesh.

A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 2 C. 3 only D. All are correct

63. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

State	Demand for creation of new state
a) Maharashtra b) West Bengal c) Assam d) Madhya Pradesh and UP e) Uttar Pradesh	1) BundelKund 2) Bodoland and Karbi Anglong 3) Poorvanchal, Awadh Pradesh, Harith Pradesh, and Paschimanchal 4) vidarbha 5) Gorkhaland

Codes:

A B C D E

(a) 1 3 5 1 4

(b) 1 3 5 4 1

(d) 4 5 1 2 3

64. Which one of the following statements is false with regard to acquisition of citizenship by birth

a) A person born in India on or after 26^th January, 1950, irrespective of the nationality of his parents

b) A person born in India on or after 1^st July, 1987, if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.

c) Children of foreign diplomats posted in India at the time of their birth.

d) A person born in India on or after 3^rd December, 2004, only if both of his parents are citizens of India or one of his parents Indian citizen and other parent is not a illegal migrant at the time of his birth.

65. Which of the Fundamental Rights can’t be suspended even during the currency of National Emergency declared on account of external aggression or war?

A. Fundamental Rights conferred under the articles 19

B. Fundamental Rights conferred under the articles 20 and 21

C. Fundamental Rights conferred under the articles 19, 20 and 21

D. None

66. Which of the following acts has allowed British Govt. direct control over the affairs of East

India Company?

A. Regulating Act 1773 B. GOI Act, 1858 C. Pitts India Act, 1784 D. Charter Act, 1833

67. Which of the following FR/Articles are not applicable to foreigners/aliens

a) Article 14

b) Article 20, 21 and 21A

c) Articles 22 to 28

d) Articles 15, 16, 19 and 29 & 30

68. If a person willing to become Indian citizen by way of registration, how many years he or she

Has to stay in India?

A. 5 years B. 7 years C. 10 years D. 12 years

69. Which one of the following is the real guiding factor for the state to meet social needs and for the establishment of new social order?

(A) Fundamental rights (B) Preamble of the Constitution

70. Match articles with issues and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (Article)		List II ( Issues covered in the article)
A	Article 15(3)	1	Reservation to OBCs in employment
B	Article 16(4)	2	Reservation in educational institutions for the educationally or socially backward sections
C	Article 19 (1) (a)	3	Freedom of press and right against tapping of telephonic conversation
D	Article 20	4	Right against self-incrimination
E	Article 21A	5	Right to education

Codes:

A B C D E

(a) 2 3 1 4 5

(b) 3 1 2 5 4

(d) 1 2 5 4 3

71. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (British India Act)		List II ( Provisions brought in)
A	Regulating Act, 1773	1	Banned private trade and accepting of gifts by British civil servants
B	Pitt’s India Act, 1784	2	Diarchy at the Centre
C	The Indian Councils Act,1909	3	Separate Electorates for Muslims
D	The Indian Councils Act.1919	4	Created “Board of control” to control affairs of East India company directly by British Govt.

Codes :

A B C D

A. 1 4 3 2

B. 1 4 2 3

C. 4 3 2 1

D. 1 2 3 4

72. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (British India Act)		List II ( Provision/s)
A	Charter Act of 1813	1	Written Competitive exams for first time in India
B	Government of India Act 1833	2	Ended the monopoly of East India Company’s trade in India
C	Government of India Act 1858	3	Ended Company rule in India
D	The Charter Act, 1853	4	Christian missionaries were allowed for preaching Christianity in India first time

Codes:

A B C D

A. 1 4 3 2

B. 1 4 2 3

C. 4 2 1 3

D. 4 2 3 1

73. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	List I (British India Act)		List II ( Provision/s)
A	Indian Councils Act, 1861	1	Portfolio system initiated at Centre
B	Indian Councils Act, 1892	2	An element of election introduced first time in India, albeit, indirect election to councils
C	The Indian Councils Act 1909	3	Non-official majority in Provincial Councils
D	The Government of India Act, 1919	4	Direct elections to the provincial councils

Codes:

A B C D

A. 1 2 3 4

B. 1 2 4 3

C. 4 2 1 3

D. 4 2 3 1

74. Which of the following options describes “Dual Government” during the rule of East India

Company correctly?

A. The affairs of the company was controlled by “Court of Directors” from Britain and Company rule in India

B. Control of affairs of EIC by two independent bodies, “Board of Control” and “Court of Directors” from Britain

C. Rule of East India company in India and South East Asia

D. None of the above

75. Which of the following are the principal features of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1) Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the Provinces.

2) Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims.

3) Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces.

4) Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures.

Select the correct answer from codes given below:

A. 1,2 and 3 B. 2,3 and 4 C. 1,2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4

76. Consider the following statements:

1) The first Public Service Commission in India was set up in the year 1926, on the recommendation of the Lee Commission on the Superior Civil Services in India.

2) The Government of India Act. 1935, provided for setting up of public service commission at both the federal and provincial levels.

\Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

77. Partially responsible governments in the provinces were established under which one of the following Acts and the rules made thereof were called as “Devolution Rules”?

A. The Govt. of India Act. 1919 B. The Govt. of India Act. 1935

C. Indian Councils Act. 1909 D. Indian Councils Act.1892

78. What were the salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935?

1) Federation with division of powers into Federal list, Provinces list and Common list

2) Dyarchy at the Centre.

3) Abolition of Dyarchy in the States.

4) Establishment of Federal Court.

5) Residuary powers with Governor-General.

Select the correct answer from codes given below:

A. 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. All of them

79. Which of the following options describes the concept of “Diarchy” introduced by the GOI Act, 1919 at Provinces?

A. Rule by Governor-General from Centre and Governors at provinces

B. Rule by Governor-in-council and Popular elected Governments on the respective subjects

C. Rule by Board of Control from London and at India by Governor-General

D. None of the above

80. Which of the acts of British India has removed discrimination to appointments to Government Services casted on Indians?

A. The Charter Act, 1853 B. Indian councils Act, 1861

C. The Charter Act, 1833 D. Indian Councils Act. 1909

81. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

	List I (Provisions)		List II ( Source)
A	Emergency Provisions	1	Ireland
B	Fundamental Rights	2	The United Kingdom
C	Parliamentary System	3	The United States of America
D	Directive Principles of State Policy and method of nomination to Rajya Sabha	4	Germany

Codes:

A B C D

A. 4 2 3 1

B. 2 3 4 1

C. 4 3 2 1

D. 2 1 4 3

82. Which of the following statements correctly describes the Fifth and sixth schedule of the Constitution of India?

A. They contain the languages recognized in the Constitution.

B. They contain the provisions regarding the administration of scheduled areas and tribal

areas within the states.

C. It lists distribution of powers between the Union and the States.

D. It deals with the salaries and emoluments of the constitutional functionaries.

83. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

	List I (Provisions)		List II ( Source)
A	Federation and Residual powers	1	Canada
B	Constitutional Amendments and mode of election to Rajya Sabha	2	South Africa
C	Fundamental Duties	3	Erstwhile USSR constitution
D	Concurrent List	4	Australia

Codes:

A B C D

A. 4 2 3 1

B. 2 3 4 1

C. 1 2 3 4

D. 1 2 4 3

84. Consider the following

1. The “Union of India” refers to 29 states and their relationship with the Central Government

2. The “territory of India comprise Union of India plus UTs and other territories

Which of the above statements are true?

A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

85. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

	List I (Concept)		List II (Meaning/example)
A	State	1	Self governing entity with internationally recognized borders
B	Nation	2	A culturally homogenous group with common language, religion, institutions etc.
C	Nation-State	3	Nationality has State of its own
D	State-less nationalities	4	Kurds, Palestinians, Rohingya muslims etc.
E	Countries with two nations	5	Canada and Belgium

Codes:

A B C D E

A. 4 2 3 1 5

B. 2 3 4 5 1

C. 1 2 3 4 5

D. 1 2 3 5 4

86. Consider the following statements

1. The Gujarat High Court has ruled that children (twins) of a German couple born to an

Indian surrogate mother is eligible for Indian Citizenship.

3. Indian Citizenship Act, 1955 recognize that the children of foreigners born to any Indian

woman, even if by surrogacy and, are eligible for Indian citizenship.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. Only 1 B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

87. As the things stand today, which of the following can’t be amended by the Parliament?

A. Fundamental Rights B. Preamble

C. Basic features of the Constitution D. Mode of election of President

88. There are two executives of a private firm, Yusuf and Raman. Both of them are drawing Rs.15 lakh salary per month and are placed similarly. However, the Government has taxed Yusuf more than B. Which article of the Constitution has been violated in A’s case?

A. Article 14 B. Article 23 C. 25 D. 29

89. Consider the following statements

1. Maintenance of Sovereignty and Integrity of the Country.

2. Maintenance of friendly relations with foreign States.

3. Maintenance of Public Order, Morality and decency.

4. Promotion of the interest of SCs, STs, OBCs and Women and Children

5. Promotion of International peace and fraternity

Which of the above are grounds for restricting the FR in India?

A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 D. All of them

90. Consider the following statements

1. Indian Constitution has not granted “freedom of press” explicitly, though it is implied in the

“Freedom of expression” under the article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution.

2. The reasonable restrictions cannot be imposed on the Press in India

3. The printer or editor of print and electronic media, who is aggrieved by an infringement of

right u/a 19(1)(a) has remedy u/a 32 or 226 of the Constitution.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3 D. All of them

91. Consider the following statements with regard to creamy layer.

1. The concept of creamy layer applies to “other backward classes” for the Positive

discrimination in the matter of admission in to educational Institutions [15(3)] and

employment [16(4)]

2. Under this, children of a class of persons and persons with certain limits of income is

excluded to enjoy the reservations among the OBCs.

3. The latest economic limit for creamy layer enhanced to Rs.6 pa from Rs.4.5 lakh.

4. The Parliament is not empowered to exclude wealthier persons or create Creamy layer

among SCs and STs.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. 1, 2 & 4 B) 1, 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 only D) All of them.

92. Match List-I (UT) with List-II (year of creation) and choose correct answer from the codes given below

	List I (Name of the UT)		List II ( Year of creation)
A	National Capital Territory of Delhi	1	1991
B	Puduchchery	2	1962
C	Goa, Daman & Diau	3	1962
D	Dadra & Nager Haveli	4	1961

Codes: A B C D

A. 1 4 2 3

B. 1 4 3 2

C. 4 3 1 2

D. 1 2 3 4

93. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle which was added recently?

A) To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Art.39)

B) To prevent sexual violence against women in India (Art. 39B)

C) To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (43A)

D) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forest & wild life(48A)

94. See the various judgments of Supreme Court on the status of FR vis-à-vis DPSP

1) In Champakam Dorairajan case(1951), the SC ruled that FR have primacy over DPSP

2) In Golaknath case(1967), the SC ruled that FR cannot be abridged for implementation of

Directive Principles.

3) In Kesavanandha Bharati Case (1973), the SC ruled that Article 31C was un-constitutional,

but give primacy to directive principles in articles 39 (b) & (c) over the FRs mentioned in

Articles 14 & 19.

4). In Minerva Mills case (1980), upheld the primacy of FR over DPSP including the articles

39 (b) & (c).

Which of the above statement/s are untrue?

A) Only 1 B) Only 4 C) Only 2 D) Only 3

95. What is the main theme of 12^th Pravasa Bharatiya Divas held at Delhi during 7^th to 9^th of January, 2014

A) Engaging Diaspora: Connecting across Generations/Facilitation of youth participation

B) Problems of NRIs in the Gulf Region

C) Enhancement of flow of funds from NRIs

D) Issue of PIO cards

96. Consider the following statements

1. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (Non-resident Indian Day), is held every year on 9^thJanuary as

Mahatma Gandhi returned from South Africa in Bombay on January 9, 1915

2. This is done to mark the contribution of the overseas Indian community to the development

of India

3. During 2013, India has received highest amount of remittances from its Non-residents in the

World

4. USA hosts highest number of overseas Indian Community or diaspora.

Which of the above statements is untrue?

A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Only 3 D) Only 4

97. The anti-defection law is placed in which schedule of the constitution? [CSP 2014]

A. VI B. V C. III D. X

98. Which of the words were not added to the Preamble by the 42^nd Constitutional amendment Act, 1976?

A. Socialist B. Secular C. Integrity D. Fraternity

99. As per the decided cases in India, Right to life and personal liberty under Art.21 doesn’t include the following.

A. Right to die

B. Right to live in pollution free environment

C. Right to privacy

D. Right to Livelihood

100. Which of the following statements are not true with regard to Uniform Civil Code?

A. It means to bring a common personal law for all religions in India with regard to

Marriage, Divorce & Maintenance & Adoptions; rules of inheritance etc.

B. The Supreme court in the case of Sarala Mudgal Vs Union of India has directed the

Central Government to explain the steps taken in the implementation of section 44 of the

constitution.

C. The directions of the Supreme Court are binding on the Union Government on the issue.

D. In the recent case of Shabhana Hasmi, the Supreme Court has ruled that Muslim

Personal Law prohibition against adoption would not bar a Muslim from adopting a child

under the secular Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act route.

******

Dear Friends,

The History test paper and Main questions for both Polity and History will be uploaded on 16.10.2014. The key for this exam along with explanation will be uploaded on the same day. These questions are meant to strengthen your fundamentals and make a habit of focused hard working. There is no short cut to success and substitute to hard work. Let us be positive and go ahead with confidence. Best of luck

Yours ever friendly

Yadagiri, IRS.,

B. Yadagiri IRS

Tuesday, 14 October 2014

CSP 2015 Indian Polity and Governance Test 1 dt. 15.10.2014

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